“He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death, though he had done no violence, nor was any deceit in his mouth” (Isaiah 53:9). How could this be? How could Jesus be assigned a grave with the wicked and yet also with the rich in his death? When Isaiah wrote these words, he no doubt must have wondered about this himself. The wicked and the rich generally end up in different places. A truly wicked person might be buried in an unmarked grave or in some obscure corner of a cemetery. We bury the wicked with dishonor and with as little fanfare as possible. But the rich we honor with monuments and flowers and generous inscriptions. We make sure that 100 years from now passers-by will know that “an important man is buried here.” We forget the wicked and remember the rich. That’s how the world works. So how could Jesus be counted both with the wicked and with the rich in his burial? Jesus fulfilled this prophecy three ways: First, when Barabbas, a genuine criminal, was set free, and Jesus quite literally died in his place. Second, when he died alongside the two criminals who were also crucified that day at Calvary. Third, when he died for sinners everywhere by taking their iniquity upon himself (“the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all,” v. 6). Romans 5:8 tells us that Christ died for sinners, and Romans 4:5 even says that God justifies the wicked. Though he lived a sinless life, Jesus died for sinners and thus was assigned a grave with the wicked. But where was he buried? In a tomb borrowed from a rich man named Joseph of Arimathea (Matthew 27:57-60). Thus even the burial of Jesus fulfilled Old Testament prophecy to the letter. Even though no one could have foreseen it in advance, both the nature of his death (by crucifixion) and theplace of his burial (a rich man’s tomb) fulfilled prophecy given 700 years earlier. All of this happened even though Jesus was innocent. He had done no violence. He committed no sin. He told no lies. Amen.
Posted on: Fri, 11 Jul 2014 00:36:14 +0000
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