A 33-year-old woman with a history of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis presents with a one week history of some diminution in her right sided vision. On examination, her right visual acuity is 6/12 with a normal looking optic disc. She is taking beta interferon 1a injections and has been fully compliant with the medication for one and half years. She has presented with five relapses during the past one year. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for this patient? (Please select 1 option) Giving boluses of intravenous methylprednisolone for three days Increase the dose of beta interferon 1a Plasma exchange Stop beta interferon 1a Switching her to beta interferon 1b injections
Posted on: Sat, 29 Nov 2014 12:40:33 +0000
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