A 52-year-old man presented following the sudden onset of severe anterior chest pain. An acute myocardial infarction was suspected and subsequently confirmed by serum troponin concentration and ECG. Following admission, he was noted to be hypotensive with oliguria. A Swan–Ganz catheter was inserted. The right atrial pressure was found to be 20 mmHg (4–8) and the indirect left atrial mean pressure (wedge) was 2 mmHg (5–10). What is the most likely explanation for these pressure measurements? A: acute left ventricular failure B: acute mitral regurgitation C: hypovolaemia D: pericardial tamponade E: right ventricular failure
Posted on: Fri, 09 Jan 2015 15:59:48 +0000