A 60-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with chronic - TopicsExpress



          

A 60-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents for review. She is still occasionally breathless despite using a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) as required. Her FEV1 is 45% of predicted and she has managed to stop smoking. Of the following options, which one is the most appropriate next step in management? A. Switch to a combined short-acting beta2-agonist and muscarinic antagonist inhaler (e.g. Combivent) B. Long-acting beta2-agonist C. Long-acting beta2-agonist + inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) in a combination inhaler D. Inhaled corticosteroid E. Use the SAMA regularly (e.g. 2 puffs qds)
Posted on: Fri, 09 May 2014 18:18:16 +0000

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