An 86-year-old woman with hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and diabetes mellitus was found to have 80% stenosis of the proximal left internal carotid artery on a CT angiogram (ordered by her primary physician to evaluate prominent calcification in several intracranial vessels on a head CT scan, which had been done as part of an evaluation for mild problems with memory). The CT scan showed no evidence of ischemia or atrophy. In addition to aggressive management of risk factors, which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient? A. antiplatelet therapy alone. B.. left carotid angioplasty and stent plus antiplatelet therapy. C.. left carotid angioplasty plus antiplatelet therapy but no stent. D.left carotid endarterectomy plus antiplatelet therapy. E. warfarin alone
Posted on: Sat, 15 Nov 2014 03:18:04 +0000
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