Dear Lyn Coultas, I appreciated your inquiry in a separate post about the passage in Hebrews 8. I wanted to address it in a separate post, as I feel it is worthy of a thorough explanation. The passage in question is verse 13: By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear. In order to understand this in its fullness, we must first look at what the prophet Jeremiah said: Jer. 31:31 “The days are coming,” declares the Lord, “when I will make a new covenant with the people of Israel and with the people of Judah. 32 It will not be like the covenant I made with their ancestors when I took them by the hand to lead them out of Egypt, because they broke my covenant, though I was a husband to[d] them,[e]” declares the Lord. 33 “This is the covenant I will make with the people of Israel after that time,” declares the Lord. “I will put my law in their minds and write it on their hearts. I will be their God, and they will be my people. 34 No longer will they teach their neighbor, or say to one another, ‘Know the Lord,’ because they will all know me, from the least of them to the greatest,” declares the Lord. “For I will forgive their wickedness and will remember their sins no more.” First, it is important to note who the new covenant is being made with. In verse 31, God specifically states that the new covenant will be made with the people of Judah and of Israel. This makes sense, as it was their ancestors who participated in the current covenant. Now that we have determined who the covenant will be made with, let us return to the epistle to the Hebrews. Next, we must observe who the letter was written to - the Hebrew believers. These were people who were culturally raised in the Jewish faith, who believed that Jesus is the Christ. They believed that the kingdom had come through Christ Jesus. Now, let us look at the passage in question beginning with verse 7: 7 For if there had been nothing wrong with that first covenant, no place would have been sought for another. 8 But God found fault with the people and said[b]: “The days are coming, declares the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the people of Israel and with the people of Judah. 9 It will not be like the covenant I made with their ancestors when I took them by the hand to lead them out of Egypt, because they did not remain faithful to my covenant, and I turned away from them, declares the Lord. 10 This is the covenant I will establish with the people of Israel after that time, declares the Lord. I will put my laws in their minds and write them on their hearts. I will be their God, and they will be my people. 11 No longer will they teach their neighbor, or say to one another, ‘Know the Lord,’ because they will all know me, from the least of them to the greatest. 12 For I will forgive their wickedness and will remember their sins no more.”[c] 13 By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear. The author, beginning in verse 7, is stating that a new covenant would not have been necessary had the people not defaulted on the first covenant. So the problem was not with the covenant; it was that the people chose not to keep their terms of the covenant. Now, the author then quotes the prophet Jeremiah, who speaks of a day that is coming when he will make a new covenant. In other words, he is speaking of a future event. When we get to verse 13, if we look at that passage in isolation, then an unlearned person would say Look! God made the first covenant obsolete! But, as others in this forum have affirmed, the law is contained in the covenant. And what did Christ say about the law? Matt. 5:18 - For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Have heaven and earth disappeared? No! Therefore, nothing has disappeared from the law. And if nothing has disappeared from the law, then that means that the old covenant must still be here. So either God is a liar, or the passage in question is misunderstood. I assert the problem is the latter. I am posting for your consideration four different versions of verse 13: ESV - In speaking of a new covenant, he makes the first one obsolete. And what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away. Darby - In that he says New, he has made the first old; but that which grows old and aged [is] near disappearing. Weymouth - By using the words, a new Covenant, He has made the first one obsolete; but whatever is decaying and showing signs of old age is not far from disappearing altogether. WEB - In that he says, A new covenant, he has made the first old. But that which is becoming old and grows aged is near to vanishing away. Notice, in each of these versions, the wording is in the present tense; in other words, it is presently changing. Also, none of the verses, including the first one I posted, state that the first covenant has disappeared. Each version implies that it is in the process of disappearing. These are all in agreement with what our Lord said in Matthew 5:18. When the author quotes the prophet Jeremiah, the author does not say that the prophecy has been fulfilled. He is simply expounding upon what God spoke through his servant Jeremiah. He is telling his audience that when God used the term new, he is implying that the former covenant will then become old. The author never said that the new covenant has been instituted. That would have opposed what Christ Jesus said in Matthew 5:18. I hope you take time to give this explanation consideration. It is a valid question, and deserves a thorough response, as well as thorough consideration. Blessings to you.
Posted on: Sat, 31 May 2014 10:44:58 +0000
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