Final Exam ITIL KPK Departmental Staff Courtesy PTI Islamabad Time: 50 min Pass Score 30/40 1. Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition? a) To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported b) To provide training and certification in project management c) To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets d) To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release Correct Answer: …………… 2. Services are a means of delivering value to customers by facilitating the outcomes customers want to achieve without the ownership of specific costs and risks.” Which entity owns the risks? a) The customer b) The IT organization c) The service provider d) The service desk function Correct Answer: …………… 3. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. All processes should have an owner. 2. A process takes one or more inputs and turns them into defined outputs, such as process reports and reviews. 3. All processes’ objectives must be defined in measurable terms. 4. All processes must have an objective. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 4 only c) All of the above d) 1, 2, and 4 Correct Answer: …………… 4. Which of the following is not a primary concern of Service Strategy? a. Providing guidance on setting strategy b. Setting policies and objectives c. Understanding how to create value for customers d. Defining a Release Plan Correct Answer: …………… 5. Which of the following statements is incorrect about patterns of demand generated by the customer’s business? a) Demand can be influenced by charging different rates at different times. b) They are delivered to the Capacity Management process so the capacity to deliver services at the agreed levels can be ensured. c) They are driven by patterns of business activity. d) Understanding patterns of business activity is unimportant. Correct Answer: …………… 6. What are the three elements of the Service Portfolio? a) Service Portfolio, Business Service Catalogue, Technical Services Catalogue b) Service Knowledge Management System, Service Portfolio, Service Lifecycle c) Service Pipeline, Service Catalogue, Retired Services d) Chartered, Operational, Retired Correct Answer: …………… 7. True or False? A customer’s perceptions, customer’s pre-established preferences, and actual business outcomes all influence the value of a service. Correct Answer: …………… 8. Which of the following is the correct description of “utility”? a) A customer or organization doing business with an electrical or water-services company. b) The service is fit for use. c) An assurance of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity, and security. d) The attributes of the service that have a positive effect on the performance of activities, objects, and tasks associated with desired outcomes. Correct Answer: …………… 9. For which of the following is the Service Catalogue Manager responsible? 1. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate and up to date. 2. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Pipeline. 3. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue. 4. Ensuring that the information in the Service Catalogue is accurate and backed up. a) 1 and 2 only b) All of the above c) 2, 3, and 4 only d) 3 and 4 only Correct Answer: …………… 10. Which of the following list is a valid type of SLA? a) Priority-based SLA b) Technology-based SLA c) Location-based SLA d) Customer-based SLA Correct Answer: …………… 11. What types of data are stored in the CMIS? 1. Change Management process metrics 2. Component utilization data 3. Business data 4. Financial data and reports a) All of the above b) 1 only c) 2, 3, and 4 only d) 2 and 3 Correct Answer: …………… 12. Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be reactive, as opposed to proactive? 1. Performing risk assessment and management exercises 2. Monitoring service availability 3. Monitoring component availability 4. Testing of resilience mechanisms a) 1 and 2 are proactive; 3 and 4 are reactive. b) 1 and 4 are proactive; 2 and 3 are reactive. c) 1 and 4 are reactive; 2 and 3 are proactive. d) 1, 2, and 3 are reactive; 4 are proactive. Correct Answer: …………… 13. What does availability measure? a) The ability of a Configuration Item (a service component) to perform its agreed function when required. b) The amount of time a service or component experienced a reduced capacity. c) The amount of time a service or component can perform its agreed function without failing or interruption. d) A measure of how quickly and effectively a service or component can be restored to normal working after a failure. Correct Answer: …………… 14. A risk is something that a) Will definitely happen b) Has already happened c) Will not happen d) Might happen Correct Answer: …………… 15. Which processes must adhere to security policies? a) Financial Management b) Availability Management c) Supplier Management d) All of the above Correct Answer: …………… 16. Which process must consider Business Continuity Plans as a major part of its own planning? a) Disaster Recovery b) IT Service Continuity Management c) Capacity Management d) Supplier Management Correct Answer: …………… 17. Who compiles the Service Design Package and ensures that it is complete? a) The Service Transition Manager b) The Availability Manager c) The Service Design Manager d) The Capacity Manager Correct Answer: …………… 18. Which of the five major aspects of Service Design is missing from the list below? 1. The design of services 2. The design of service management systems and tools 3. The design of technology architecture and management systems 4. ? 5. The design of measurement systems, methods, and metrics a) The design of functions b) The design of Service Level Agreements (SLAs) c) The design of applications d) The design of processes Correct Answer: …………… 19. How often should Service Level Management present reports back to the customer? a) At least annually b) Weekly c) Monthly d) According to the schedule specified in the SLA Correct Answer: …………… 20. Information Security Management is closely related to what other processes? a) Availability Management only b) Access Management only c) Availability Management and Access Management d) Incident Management and Service Portfolio Management Correct Answer: …………… 21. The Four Ps of Service Design are People, Processes, Products, and Partners. What is meant by “Products?” a) Tools, technology, and services b) Off-the-shelf software c) Servers only d) Necessary documentation to support our technology Correct Answer: …………… 22. Which process is responsible for tracking and maintaining relationships between pieces of data? a) Service Asset and Configuration Management b) Service Level Management c) Change Management d) Release and Deployment Management Correct Answer: …………… 23. The objective of the Service Asset and Configuration Management process is most accurately described as: a) To track changes throughout their lifecycle b) To manage service assets and CIs day-to-day c) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration records d) To ensure that assets and CIs meet their availability targets as outlined in the SLAs Correct Answer: …………… 24. Which phrase is missing from the following sentence? “A logical records the relationships between assets, the infrastructure, and services.” a) Configuration Model b) Knowledge Management System c) Service Asset Database d) Release Package Correct Answer: …………… 25. What is the best description of a release unit? a) A team that builds, tests, and implements releases into the live environment b) The part of a service or infrastructure that is rolled back after a failure during imple- mentation c) The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a specific release d) The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together Correct Answer: …………… 26. Which ITIL process formally “owns” the Definitive Media Library (DML)? a) Release and Deployment Management b) Change Management c) Service Asset and Configuration Management d) Service Level Management Correct Answer: …………… 27. Which list shows these items in order from smallest to largest? a) CMS, CMDB, SKMS b) SKMS, CMDB, CMS c) CMDB, CMS, SKMS d) Service Portfolio, CMS, CMDB Correct Answer: …………… 28. What type of changes is the ECAB responsible for reviewing prior to authorization? a) Urgent changes b) Standard changes c) Normal changes d) Emergency changes Correct Answer: …………… 28. Which of the following would be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)? 1) Software developed in-house 2) Software purchased off the shelf 3) Relevant license keys and license documentation 4) Backup copies of software a. All of the above b. 1 and 2 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, and 3 only Correct Answer: …………… 30. Which process is responsible for monitoring components and generating alerts when a threshold has been exceeded? a. Change Management b. Service Level Management c. Technical Management d. Event Management Correct Answer: …………… 31. Which ITIL process is responsible for taking calls from end users and restoring their service as quickly as possible? a. Incident Management b. Service Desk c. Request Fulfillment d. Problem Management Correct Answer: …………… 32. Which process has the activity of assigning users the appropriate access rights to a service? a) Access Management b) Information Security Management c) Availability Management d) Service Desk Correct Answer: …………… 33. Facilities Management is a) The ITIL process that manages data centers and cabling requests b) The ITIL process that provides assistance to IT Operations personnel on issues regarding third-party providers c) The ITIL function that manages the physical IT environment (for example, the data center) d) The ITIL function responsible for negotiating contracts with external suppliers regarding back-up facilities Correct Answer: …………… 34. Which of these is a valid service desk structure? a) Help Desk a) Regional service desk b) Virtual service desk c) Federated service desk Correct Answer: …………… 35. Functions are best described as a) Teams lacking an operational run book b) The combination of processes and roles c) Self-contained units of organizations d) A single task or activity that is part of a process Correct Answer: …………… 36. What are the four basic reasons to monitor and measure? a) To Validate, Direct, Justify, and Intervene b) People, Products, Processes, and Partners c) Define, Analyze, Approve, and Charter d) Plan, Do, Check, and Act Correct Answer: …………… 37. What do Technology Metrics measure? a) The progress, efficiency, effectiveness, and cost of a process b) The uptime of systems and their constituent components c) The end-to-end service d) Resources and capabilities Correct Answer: …………… 38. Which of the following is not a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model? a) Did we get there? b) What is the vision? c) Do we have the proper personnel? d) Where are we now? Correct Answer: …………… 39. In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model, which activities are performed during the “How do we get there?” stage? a) Embrace the vision by understanding the high level business objectives b) Verify the measurements and metrics are in place to ensure that milestones were achieved c) Implement service and process improvements d) Take a snapshot to capture your baseline Correct Answer: …………… 40. What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)? a) An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization b) An agreement between the service provider and an external organization c) A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis d) A document that describes business services to operational staff Correct Answer: ………
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