Here are my answers to the criticisms I have read: NKJV - TopicsExpress



          

Here are my answers to the criticisms I have read: NKJV Criticism #1. The NKJV replaces thou, thy, and thine, with you or your. The Greek and Hebrew language contain a different word for the second person singular and the second person plural pronouns. Today we use the one-word you for both the singular and plural. But because the translators of the 1611 King James Bible desired an accurate, word-for-word translation of the Hebrew and Greek text - they could NOT use the one-word you throughout! If it begins with t (thou, thy, thine) its SINGULAR, but if it begins with y (ye) its PLURAL. #1 answered: I looked up the 1611 KJV thou, thy, and thines and the NKJV you and yours, and I did not find a single instance where there was any doubt about singular and plural. The context is very clear whether one person is being addressed, or whether two or more are being addressed. I find absolutely no problem with any of the yous, and yours, in the NKJV. NKJV Criticism #2. The NKJV removes the word repent 5 times! And how does that make the NKJV much clearer? #2 answered: The Greek word Metanoieo, Strongs number is true repentance, a real change of mind and both the 1611 KJV and NKJV translate it correctly, as repent. The Greek word metamelomai, Strongs number , is an emotional reaction, not true repentance, and is correctly translated regret, remorse, and relent in the NKJV. The 1611 KJV translators translated BOTH Metanoieo, AND metamelomai as repent. The NKJV only changed repent five times where the Greek word metamelomai occurs. The NKJV differentiates between true repentance and an emotional reaction. The five verses in the NKJV: --- Matthew 21:29 He answered and said, ’I will not,’ but afterward he regretted ( metamelomai) it and went. --- Matthew 21:32 For John came to you in the way of righteousness, and you did not believe him; but tax collectors and harlots believed him; and when you saw it, you did not afterward relent (give in metamelomai) and believe him. --- Matthew 27:3 Then Judas, His betrayer, seeing that He had been condemned, was remorseful ( metamelomai) and brought back the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders. --- 2 Corinthians 7:8 For even if I made you sorry with my letter, I do not regret ( metamelomai, presently regret) it; though I did regret ( metamelomai, Greek imperfect tense did regret it at the time) it. For I perceive that the same epistle made you sorry, though only for a while. --- Hebrews 7:21 for they have become priests without an oath, but He with an oath by Him who said to Him: The LORD has sworn And will not relent (give up metamelomai), You are a priest forever According to the order of Melchizedek. I find the NKJV to be correct in every passage where metanoieo AND metamelomai occur. NKJV Criticism #3. The NKJV changes Holy Ghost to Holy Spirit 89 times! #3 answered: The Greek words in question here are hagios pneuma, translated in the 1611 KJV as Holy Spirit 4 times, and as Holy Ghost 89 times. It seems that there are people who believe that there is a difference between the 1611 KJV Holy Ghost and the Holy Spirit, and that the 1611 KJV translators were inspired by God in this Holy Ghost/Holy Spirit translation. The Greek phrase underneath the 1611 KJV Holy Ghost and Holy Spirit is always the same hagios pneuma. So, did Gods people not have the true word of God until the 1611 KJV was translated? The 1611 KJV translates pneuma as spirit, some 296 times and as ghost 91 times, then in Matt. 14:26 where the actual Greek word for ghost occurs ( phantasma), the 1611 KJV says spirit! --- 1611 KJV Matt 14:26 And when the disciples saw him walking on the sea, they were troubled, saying, It is a spirit ( phantasma - Greek word for ghost!) and they cried out for fear. The NKJV simply translates every occurrence of hagios pneuma as Holy Spirit - and correctly translates phantasma in Matt 14:26, as ghost. NKJV Criticism #4. In Romans 11:29 the NKJV changes repentance to irrevocable! #4 answered: Greek word Ametameletos here, Strongs number , means NO REGRETS, the gifts of God ARE IRREVOCABLE! Gods gifts are stated to be Sovereignly bestowed, and permanent. The NKJV is correct here. NKJV Criticism #5 The NKJV has removed the term new testament, it is NOT in the NKJV! The NKJV replaces new testament with new covenant! #5 answered: The 1611 KJV translates the Greek word diatheke, Strongs number , as covenant 20 times, and testament 13 times. In the 1611 KJV Old Testament text, the Hebrew word is translated covenant over 250 times - and NEVER testament. Then, in the Greek text, SPEAKING OF THE VERY SAME COVENANTS, the 1611 KJV translates the Greek word diatheke, - as testament 11 times when the context is speaking of Gods covenants with the Nation of Israel. I believe the 1611 KJV word testament has actually caused a misunderstanding of Gods covenants. Jesus lived and died under the Old (Mosaic) covenant! The four Gospels tell us about the New Covenant, but are actually a continuation of the books of the Old Covenant. The NKJV is simply being consistent, by translating diatheke as covenant, EVERY TIME the context is speaking of Gods covenants. NKJV Criticism #6. The word devils, has been completely removed from the NKJV! They replaced it with the transliterated Greek word demon. #6 answered: There is only one Devil in the Bible, which is the Greek word diabolos. Diabolos is always singular in the Textus Receptus Greek text, never plural! The fallen angels are Demons, diamonion in the Greek text. The 1611 KJV translators did not differentiate between THE Devil and demons, but universally translated both diabolos AND diamonion as devil and devils. Devil is a title of Satan: --- 1611 KJV Revelation 12:9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil diabolos, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him. --- 1611 KJV Matthew 4:1 Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil diabolos. The 1611 KJV translation of BOTH diabolos AND diamonion as devil, often leaves the reader wondering whether the reference is to THE Devil - Satan, or to a fallen angel (demon). God placed two different Greek words in the Textus Receptus Greek text, diabolos for THE Devil, and diamonion, for the fallen angels. When I look at a list of all the verses that contain these two words, it is obvious to me that the NKJV is much clearer by always translating diabolos as devil and diamonion as demon. NKJV Criticism #7. In 2 Timothy 2:15, the NKJV removes that obsolete word - study, and replaces it with be diligent! The only time youre told to study your Bible. AND THEY ZAP IT! Why dont they want you to study your Bible? Maybe they dont want you to look too close - you might find out what theyve ACTUALLY done to your Bible! The real KJV is the only English Bible in the world that instructs you to study your Bible! #7 answered: The NKJV is correct. spoudazo means to hasten, to exert ones self, to endeavor. The 1611 KJV translates spoudazo as endeavor 3 times, do diligence twice, be diligent twice, give diligence once, be forward once, labour once, - AND study ONCE in 2 Tim 2:15! There is nothing in the word spoudazo that means study. Study is not replaced because it is obsolete - it is replaced because Be diligent is what spoudazo means, and be diligent includes BOTH study AND, more importantly - application! NKJV Criticism #8. That obsolete word virtue is replaced with power in Mark 5:30, Luke 6:19, 8:46, where Jesus felt virtue go out of him! How does anybody confuse virtue with power? #8 answered: Virtue here is DUNAMIS - POWER, where we get our English word dynamite! The 1611 KJV translates dunamis as power 77 times! There is a Greek word for virtue, the Greek word arete, meaning moral excellence, and it is correctly translated virtue, in BOTH the 1611 KJV AND NKJV, in Phil. 4:8, and in 2 Pet. 1:4 and 5. I do not believe Jesus felt any moral excellence, arete leave Him, the word is DUNAMIS - POWER, in Mark 5:30, Luke 6:19, and 8:46, and correctly translated power in the NKJV. NKJV Criticism #9. The NKJV removes the word hell 23 times! Who in their right mind would think Hades is up-to-date and much clearer than hell? #9 answered: Underneath the word hell in the 1611 KJV New Testament, there are three different Greek words. The 1611 KJV translators did not differentiate between these 3 words, but covered them up 21 times with the single English word hell: --- gehenna, is a perpetually burning trash dump just South of Jerusalem, that Jesus used eleven times as an illustration of physical death due to unrepentant sin. The NKJV translates this word as hell. --- Hades , is the New Testament Greek word for the present abode of the those who have died in unbelief. Jesus described hades in Luke 16:21-31, as a place in the heart of the earth, with a section for Old Testament saints, called paradise, and a section for unbelievers, who are tormented by fire. The Old Testament saints were removed from hades, and transferred to the third heaven, by Jesus when He ascended to heaven, Matt 27:51-53, Psa 68:18-20. All unbelievers, both Old and New Testament, will go to hades, where they will be held until they are resurrected to stand before the Great White Throne. The NKJV correctly translates this word as hades --- And tartaros The hottest place in Hades, where 2 Pet 2:4 states the angels who left their first estate, and sinned in Genesis chapter 6 are being held. The NKJV translates this word as hell. --- The final state of Hell does not even exist yet! In Rev 20:14, we find that Death and Hades are cast into the lake of fireAFTER the Great White Throne. The 1611 KJV covers up these three Greek words with the single word hell, and the reader does not know what God actually placed in the context. I do not think we should be proud of ignorance! We should diligently and prayerfully try to fully understand what our English translations are saying. How can we criticize the NKJV for correctly translating the Greek word hades as Hades? Specific criticisms of the NKJV removing the word Hell: --- In Matt. 11:23 and 16:18, Luke 10:15 and 16:23, Acts 2:27 and 31, and Rev. 1:18, 6:8, and 20:13 and 14, the NKJV changes Hell to Hades. The Greek word in these verses is hades, and the NKJV correctly translates them as Hades. --- The NKJV changes grave to Hades in 1 Cor. 15:55 - . . . O Hades, where is your victory? The Greek word here is hades, also. The 1611 KJV translates hades as Hell ten times in the New Testament, and then once as grave in 1 Cor. 15:55! The NKJV simply translates all eleven occurrences of hades, as Hades. Again, Jesus described hades in Luke 16:19-31, and it certainly is not a grave. The NKJV is correct. NKJV Criticism #10: NKJV changes the word servant to slave twice. The NKJV in Romans 6:22, reads: But now having been set FREE from sin, and having become SLAVES OF GOD. . . The NKJV, in 1 Corinthians 7:22, calls the Christian, Christs slave. #10 answered: There are four different New Testament Greek words, for four different types of servants, and there is ONE Greek word for a slave, and that is the word here, Douloo - a SLAVE! What is wrong with being Gods slave? Rom. 6:17 says that we were slaves of sin, and 1 Cor 6:19 says ye are not your own, and 1 Cor 7:23 states Ye are bought with a price;..!, and we belong to Him! He takes care of us, provides for us, motivates us to do His will, and even allows us to be free to get out of fellowship, and disciplines us when we do not quickly confess our sin and return to fellowship! It is our freedom that gets us in trouble! Gods Word describes our standing in many other ways, such as a bride, a building, a flock, children of God, servants of God, ambassidors of Christ, the body of Christ, the called out ones, a Holy Temple, saints, and priests unto God. In John 15:14, Jesus told His disciples Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you. Each of these descriptions is a figure, describing one of the facets of our wonderful relationship with God - including slave, in Rom. 6:22, and 1 Cor. 7:22, where slave reminds us that we were slaves to sin and now have been purchased, as Acts 20:28 says, with his own blood. The NKJV simply translates the Greek word here - Douloo - correctly as slave. NKJV Criticism #11 The NKJV removes the words damned, and damnation and has replaced them with condemned and condemnation. Condemned is NO WHERE NEAR AS SERIOUS as damned! Damned is eternal! (Criticism from AV1611.org) #11 answered: Condemned in the NKJV is correct. --- If damned is eternal, then Christians can be eternally damned for doubting whether they can eat meat or not in Rom 14:23. Paul just spent a whole chapter stating that it is OK for the Christian to eat the meat in question. The Christian here is condemned for doubting, not eternally damned, as the 1611 KJV states. --- If damned is eternal, then the 1611 KJV damns Christians to Hell for eating the Lords Supper unworthily, in 1 Cor 11:29! --- And, the 1611 KJV damns Christians to Hell forever, for resisting earthly authorities, in Rom 13:1-7! There are four Greek words that the 1611 KJV translates damned and damnation, and the 1611 KJV translates these SAME four Greek words as condemned or condemnation 29 times, and as damned or damnation 13 times: --- katakrino The 1611 KJV translates as condemnation 17 times, and damnation 2 times. --- krima , The 1611 KJV translates as condemnation 5 times, and damnation 7 times. --- krino , The 1611 KJV translates as condemnation 5 times, and damnation 1 time. --- krisis, The 1611 KJV translates as condemnation 2 times, and damnation 3 times. You can check these words out for your self with a Strongs Concordance! Again, the NKJV is simply faithful to the Greek text and consistent in its translation of these Greek words as condemned or condemnation, instead of switching to the expletive damned, out of thin air. NKJV Criticism #12. In order to harmonize with the satanic New Age Movement, the NKJV changes end of the WORLD to end of the AGE! And its no longer the WORLD to come but the AGE to come. See Matthew 12:32, 13:39, 13:40, 13:49, 24:3, 28:20, Mark 10:30, Luke 13:30, 20:34,35, 1 Cor 1:21. #12 answered: The Greek word in question here is aion. Aion is a PERIOD OF TIME. The End of the AGE, and the AGE to come is correct, and speaks of the present dispensation, or the dispensation to come. The New Testament comes alive when we realize these passages speak of Gods Dispensations! When Jesus and His disciples speak of the end of the Age they are speaking of the end of the Jewish Age! The Church Age is a mystery hid in Christ (Eph 3:2-6) and is inserted into the Jewish AGE 7 years before the completion of the Jewish AGE. The 7 year Tribulation is the completion of the Jewish AGE, and the AGE after the Tribulation is the Millennial AGE. The 1611 KJV translates aion correctly in two passages: --- Ephesians 2:7 That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus. --- Colossians 1:26 Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints: Consider these 1611 KJV examples: --- Matthew 13:39 The enemy that sowed them is the devil; the harvest is the end of the world (The end of the Jewish AGE, at the Second Advent); and the reapers are the angels. The end of the Jewish AGE, at the Second Advent is NOT the end of the world! It is the beginning of the Millennial Age on this earth. --- Matthew 13:40 As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world (Again, the end of the Jewish AGE, which is the Second Advent of Christ). --- Matthew 13:49 So shall it be at the end of the world (Again, the end of the Jewish AGE, at the Second Advent): the angels shall come forth, and sever the wicked from among the just, --- Matthew 24:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world (Jesus gave them the signs of the end of the Jewish AGE)? --- Matthew 28:20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world . (The end of the Jewish AGE. Jesus will be with us IN PERSON in the Millennial AGE). Amen. I find the NKJV to be much more faithful to the original Textus Receptus Greek text, in translating the Greek word aion. The group of 47 1611 King James Translators contained believers, unbelievers, Protestants and Catholics. What they had in common, was that they were top linguists of their day. It is easy to see, from their work of translating the New Testament, that they were not all theologians. That is why we need Pastors and Teachers today who study and teach from the original New Testament Greek! The first three universities founded in the United States, were primarily established for one purpose - to teach the original Greek and Hebrew to Bible teachers and Missionaries! NKJV Criticism #13. The New Age Movement and the occult are longing for one called the Maitreya. The Bible calls him the Anti-Christ. New Agers refer to him as the the Coming One - AND SO DOES THE NKJV! In the NKJV, in Matt. 11:3 and Luke 7:19 and 20, John told his disciples to ask Jesus: Are You THE COMING ONE. . .! #13 answered: It does not matter what the cults do or say, or what any other Bible translation says, we should not act and react according to them! What matters is that we are faithful to Gods Word! The coming One is exactly what the Greek Textus Receptus says in Matt 11:3. This is a TITLE for the coming Messiah of Old Testament prophesy. The Greek phrase Ho Erchomenos is an Antimereia of the verb, which is a Participle used as a noun, and the Analytical Greek Lexicon states that this verb is in the Nominative, naming, case, and is articular, (preceeded by the Greek article THE), which is a TITLE of the Messiah - THE COMING ONE. This Koine Greek title, THE Coming One, refers to Psa 118:26, Blessed be he that cometh in the name of the LORD, which is a reference to the Messiah in Old Testament prophesy. John the Baptist and his followers knew exactly what they were saying, when they asked Jesus if He was Ho Erchomenos, THE Coming One. E. W. Bullinger recognized The Coming One in his Figures of Speech used in the Bible, in 1898. M. R. Vincent, in his Word Studies in the New Testament, recognized this Greek Idiom and Title of Christ, in 1887. The first English translation I find that recognizes The Coming One, is the Weymouth Bible, translated in 1903. Weymouth stated that he paid particular attention to the Greek idioms. The NKJV translators did also, and I think we should do the same. NKJV Criticism #14. BELIEVE IT OR NOT - in Acts 17:29 the NKJV changes Godhead to Divine Nature! #14 answered: Do any of you know what a Godhead is? Even the English Dictionary defines Godhead as divinity! This is the Greek word Theios , and I think Divine Nature is an EXCELLENT translation! This word Theios is in two other New Testament verses, 2 Pet 1:3 and 1:4, and the 1611 KJV itself translates Theios Divine both times: --- 1611 KJV 2 Peter 1:3 According as his divine power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of him that hath called us to glory and virtue: --- 1611 KJV 2 Peter 1:4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust. The NKJV simply translates all three correctly, as Divine. Divine Nature in Acts 17:29, Divine Power in 2 Pet 1:3, and Divine Nature in 2 Pet 1:4. NKJV Criticism #15. In Matthew 7:14, the NKJV changes narrow is the way to difficult is the way. Theres nothing difficult about the salvation of Jesus Christ! Jesus says in Matt. 11:30, For my yoke is EASY, and my burden is light. THE EXACT OPPOSITE! Boy, you talk about a contradiction! #15 answered: The Greek word here in Matt 7:14, is thlibo, which the 1611 KJV translates here as narrow. Thlibo occurs 10 times in the Textus Receptus Greek text. The 1611 KJV translates thlibo also as trouble 4 times, afflict 3 times, throng 1 time, suffer tribulation 1 time, and narrow once, here in Matt 7:14. thlibo is a VERB, meaning to press hard upon, to be under pressure, as in the pressing of grapes. Thlibo is used as a metaphor for trouble or affliction, in the New Testament, so the NKJV is perfectly correct to translate thlibo as difficult. We must remember that Jesus is speaking to the Jews, who often lost their inheritance, their business, and their family as a result of believing in Jesus as their Savior. Jesus uses present tenses in this passage to express the present extreme difficulty to which the Jew who believed in Him would be subjected. Actually, strait, in both verses 13 & 14, is stenos meaning narrow and thlibo is a verb, meaning to press hard upon! Lets look at Matt 7:13 & 14 in the 1611 KJV: --- Enter ye in at the strait (stenos narrow) gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go (present tense, are presently going in) in thereat: 14 Because strait (stenos narrow) is the gate, and narrow ( thlibo, with trouble, or afflicted) is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find (Present tense are presently finding) it. Jesus often spoke of having to give up everything to follow Him, and the difficulties and persecution His followers would face! Yes, HIS yoke IS easy, and HIS burden IS light, because what HE asks us to do, HE gives us the desire, and ability to do, but the Jews to whom Jesus was speaking, would lose everything they had and their relatives would disown them. Like Jesus said, count the cost. The Scriptures teach: --- John 16:33 1611 KJV ...In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer; I have overcome the world. (Our future with Christ is worth it) --- Acts 14:22 1611 KJV Confirming the souls of the disciples, and exhorting them to continue in the faith, and that we must through much tribulation enter into the kingdom of God. --- 2 Tim 3:12 1611 KJV Yea, and all that will live godly in Christ Jesus shall suffer persecution. I believe the NKJV is correct in its translation of Matt 7:13 & 14, in expressing the narrow way, of Jesus only, and difficulties the followers of Jesus will face. NKJV Criticism #16. In Matthew 12:40, the NKJV changes whale to fish. (whats the truth got to do with it?). The Greek word used in Matthew 12:40 is ketos. The scientific study of whales just happens to be - CETOLOGY - from the Greek ketos for whale and logos for study! The scientific name for whales just happens to be - CETACEANS - from the Greek ketos for whale! #16 answered: According to Thayers New Testament Greek Lexicon, Ketos , in the ancient world, meant sea monster, a whale, or a huge fish. A Whale is just the largest fish we know of today, but that does not mean that a whale swallowed Jonah. Jesus is referring to Jonah 1:17, and 2:1, which the 1611 KJV translates Now the LORD had prepared a great fish (Hebrew word dag always translated fish in the 1611 KJV OT) to swallow up Jonah. And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights. We do not know what it was, but a huge fish covers it all. It may or may not have been a whale, we do not know. It was in the ocean and it swallowed Jonah, and God Himself prepared it. The Hebrew word for prepared here is mawnaw (8762), meaning ordained, or appointed. To me, the NKJV is perfectly correct in translating ketos in Matthew 12:40 as fish, especially since the Old Testament, great fish is being quoted. Naming a certain fish, without knowing whether we are correct or not could easily be WRONG, and misleading. The great fish that swallowed Jonah may not even exist today! Men, long after the Bible was written, gave names to sea creatures and named their scientific study. If we are going to get upset that the NKJV changes whale in Matt 12:40, to fish, why dont we get upset at the 1611 KJV Old Testament translators for saying Jonah was swallowed by a great fish? The NKJV says fish in BOTH Jonah 1:17 & 2:1, AND in Matt 12:40, which I say is consistent and an IMPROVEMENT! All we KNOW, is that it was a specially prepared great fish, and if we try to name it, we could be wrong. NKJV Criticism #17. In Matthew 18:26 & Matthew 20:20, the NKJV removes worshipped him (robbing worship from Jesus). #17 answered: In Thayers Lexicon, proskuneo, in the New Testament, means kneeling or prostration, to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in order to express respect or to make supplication. Matt. 18:26 is actually a parable, where an earthly servant falls down before his earthly master, and asks his master to have patience with him in paying a debt. The earthly servant in this parable does not worship the earthly master, he just wants some more time to pay a debt! In Matt. 20:20, the mother of Zebedee’s sons came to Jesus asking that her sons sit on His right hand and left hand in His Kingdom. She is not worshipping Jesus, she is selfishly asking Him for something she cannot have! The NKJV Fell down before him, and kneeling down is perfectly fine in these two passages, to me. NKJV Criticism #18. The NKJV completely removes the word atonement from the New Testament! #18 answered: The English word atonement occurs ONCE in the 1611 KJV, in Rom. 5:11, where we, who believe in Christ, are said to have received the atonement. The Greek word translated atonement in Rom 5:11 is the noun form of katallasso. Thayers Greek Lexicon states that this word literally means to exchange, and in its New Testament contexts means to be reconciled, or restored to favor, in that, through the expiatory death of Christ, God exchanged the fallen state of sinners for a state of favor and blessing. Katallasso is also found twice in the previous verse, Rom. 5:10, and again in Rom. 11:15, 1 Cor 7:11, and 2 Cor 5:18-20, where it is translated reconciled, reconciling, and reconciliation in every instance in the 1611 KJV, except for Rom. 5:11. Apparently, the 1611 KJV translators used the literary rules of Elizabethan English to avoid repeating a word more than twice in Rom 5:10 & 11, so, where God placed the Greek word katalasso three times, the 1611 KJV translators changed the Word of God to fit their English literary rules, by changing the translation of the third occurrence of katalasso from reconciled to atonement. The KJV translators used the English word atonement in the Old Testament to translate the Hebrew word kaphar, everywhere it spoke of the sacrifices, meaning literally to cover, referring to sins being temporarily covered by the blood of the sacrifices . Kaphar, is translated 71 times in the 1611 KJV Old Testament, as atonement referring to the TEMPORARY covering of sin. The Old Testament sacrifices, for a covering of sins, had to be continually repeated for individuals, and yearly for the Nation of Israel. The animal sacrifices God commanded in the book of Leviticus looked forward to Jesus and His once for all finished work on the Cross. I do not find in the New Testament that Jesus did anything temporary on the Cross, or that any sins were just covered. Again, the NKJV is just being consistent in Rom 5:10 & 11. Where God placed katalasso three times in Rom 5:10 & 11, the NKJV translates all three correctly as reconciled, reconciled, and reconciliation. NKJV Criticism #19. The NKJV removes the word Christ, in Mark 13:6 & Luke 21:8! #19 answered: That is because the word Christ is not in Mark 13:6 & Luke 21:8! It is added by the 1611 KJV Translators, as you can see by the italics. These two verses speak of false messiahs, as Jesus says, coming IN MY NAME. The question is, what name will these false messiahs use? They have used Jesus, Son of God, the Christ, the messiah, Emmanuel, Yeshua and others. Mark 13:6 in the NKJV - For many will come in My name, saying, ’I am He,’ and will deceive many. Mark, and Luke, the authors of these passages, did not place a name in these two verses, but left it open for any of the many names of Jesus. I think the NKJV translation I am He is preferred, because it covers ANY of the MANY names of Jesus that a false messiah might use. NKJV Criticism #20. In John 1:3, the NKJV changes All things were made BY him; to All things were made THROUGH Him. #20 answered: The Greek preposition dia , primarily means through, not by. The Greek Lexicon states dia is a primary preposition denoting the channel of an act. The 1611 KJV itself translates dia as through 88 times. The Scriptures state some 25 times that God created the heavens and earth, and the Holy Spirit also took part in the creation, beginning with Genesis 1:1 & 2 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth, And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters. Created all things by Jesus Christ, would mean that He is the sole creator - by Himself. God is One, and the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are stated to have taken part in the creation. Five times the New Testament states that the creation exists dia - through (the channel of the act) Jesus: --- Heb 1:1-3 1611 KJV God hath spoken to us in these last days and appointed Jesus heir of all things, by (dia , through) whom he made the worlds. --- Eph 3:9 1611 KJV God created all things by (dia through) Jesus Christ. --- John 1:1-3 and 14 1611 KJV Speaking of the eternal Second Person of the Trinity, Jesus, the Word of God in verse 14, All things were made by (dia through) him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. --- John 1:10 & 11 in the Greek states about Jesus: He was in the world and the world was made by (dia through) Him, and the world knew Him not. He came into His own things (the world He created) and his own people did not receive Him. --- Col 1:13-17 and 19 1611 KJV Speaking of Jesus, For by (en in Him) him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by (dia through) him, and for him. The NKJV correctly translates dia as through, indicating that Jesus took part in the creation, in all 5 of the above passages. NKJV Criticism #21. In John 4:24, the NKJV changes God is a spirit to the impersonal, New Age pantheistic,God is spirit! #21 answered: There is no article a in the Greek, in John 4:24. God is not a Spirit! That would make Him just one of many spirits! The Greek says GOD IS (equals) SPIRIT! God is INFINITE SPIRIT, there is no place where He does not exist, but He fills all in all! (II Chronicles 2:5 & 6, I Kings 8:27, Jeremiah 23:24) The New King James is absolutely correct again! NKJV Criticism #22. The NKJV changes comforter to helper (referring to the Holy Spirit), in John 14:16. #22 answered: I believe NKJV is correct again. The NKJV Helper is a good translation of parakletos , in John 14:16. Do we need comfort, or help? Comfort is emotional, help is real assistance. parakletos basically means someone summoned (kletos) to ones side (para). If you were drowning, would you want someone to come to your side and comfort you, or help you? By the way, both the 1611 KJV and NKJV translate parakletos as advocate, in 1 John 2:1. NKJV Criticism #23. The NKJV changes tongue to language, in Acts 2:8! #23 answered: The Greek word in question here is dialektos , where we get our English word dialect. This word also occurs two verses previous, in Acts 2:6, where the 1611 KJV translates dialektos as LANGUAGE! There are 14 known spoken LANGUAGES listed in this context, and one man spoke and every man heard in his own spoken LANGUAGE! The NKJV is correct. dialektos occurs five times in the Textus Receptus Greek text, and the 1611 KJV only translated this word correctly in Acts 2:6! These five verses in the 1611 KJV: ---Acts 1:19 And it was known unto all the dwellers at Jerusalem; insomuch as that field is called in their proper tongue ( dialektos), Aceldama, that is to say, The field of blood. ---Acts 2:6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language ( dialektos). ---Acts 2:8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue ( dialektos), wherein we were born? ---Acts 21:40 And when he had given him licence, Paul stood on the stairs, and beckoned with the hand unto the people. And when there was made a great silence, he spake unto them in the Hebrew tongue ( dialektos), saying. ---Acts 22:2 (And when they heard that he spake in the Hebrew tongue ( dialektos) to them, they kept the more silence: and he saith, ---Acts 26:14 And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking unto me, and saying in the Hebrew tongue ( dialektos), Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks. The NKJV translates dialektos correctly as language in all five verses. NKJV Criticism #24. In Acts 4:27 & 30, the NKJV changes holy child to holy servant (referring to Jesus). #24 answered: pais primarily means servant, and can mean child also. The 1611 KJV translates pais as servant 10 times, and child 7 times. The context must determine whether servant or child is appropriate. In Matthew 12:18 The 1611 KJV translates pais as servant, in speaking of Jesus - Behold my servant ( pais), whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles. In Acts 4:27 & 30 Jesus is NOT A CHILD, He is risen from the dead, ascended, glorified, and ruling from heaven! I believe the NKJV is correct again. NKJV Criticism #25. In Acts 8:9-11, the 1611 KJV states that a certain man, called Simon, bewitched the people. The NKJV changes bewitched to ASTONISHED. #25 answered: Existemi means amazed, or astonished. The 1611 AV translates existemi as be amazed 6 times, be astonished 5 times, be beside (one’s) self 2 times, make astonished 1 time, wonder 1 time, and bewitched here in Acts 8:9-11. --- Acts 8:9 1611 KJV But there was a certain man, called Simon, which beforetime in the same city used sorcery ( mageia, our English word magic), and bewitched ( existemi, amazed, or astonished) the people of Samaria, giving out that himself was some great one: 10 To whom they all gave heed, from the least to the greatest, saying, This man is the great power of God. 11 And to him they had regard, because that of long time he had bewitched ( existemi, amazed, or astonished) them with sorceries. ( mageia, our English word magic) The English word bewitched, in the 1611 KJV, means to place under a spell, but the Greek word here existemi, primarily means to throw out of position, or off balance, and means to be amazed, or astonished, in all its New Testament contexts. Gods Word does not teach that people can be placed under spells or voodoo. Existemi, here, means the people were fooled, thrown off balance, amazed, or astonished. I believe the NKJV astonished is much better than bewitched here. NKJV Criticism #26. In Acts 12:4, the NKJV replaces Easter with Passover! #26 answered: I would be ashamed to mention this passage as a criticism of the NKJV. Pascha, here means passover, and the 1611 KJV correctly translated it passover 28 times. Then someone on the 1611 KJV team had the brilliant idea to translate Pascha as Easter, in Acts 12:4! The English word Easter, is a transliteration of Ishtar the Babylonian pagan goddess of fertility! See the Origin of Easter for a further explanation. The NKJV corrects this gross mistranslation. NKJV Criticism #27. In Acts 17:16 the NKJV changes stirred to provoked. #27 answered: paroxuno here literally means to make sharp, meaning to stimulate, spur on, to provoke. There is one other occurrence of paroxuno in the New Testament, in 1 Corinthians 13:5, where the 1611 KJV translates paroxuno as provoked! The NKJV is simply consistent, in translating paroxuno in both 1 Cor 13:5 AND Acts 17:16, as provoked. NKJV Criticism #28. The NKJV changes superstitious to religious, in Acts 17:22. #28 answered: In Acts 17:22, Paul is on Mars Hill, in Athens, and he was talking to men who were so religious they had a statue representing every god they knew of, and even one representing the unknown god, in case they missed one. I do not believe this passage teaches these men of Athens were superstitious at all, it indicates that they were SUPER religious. dice-ee-dahee-mon-es-ter-os was the common Greek word for religious in Pauls day. The English word religious can be religious in a good sense or in a bad sense, but religious in worshipping the deity of choice. Paul would have been insulting the Athenians on Mars Hill if he had called these men superstitious! The context shows a great respectful discussion between Paul and the men of Athens concerning the gods they worshipped, and Paul took this opportunity to tell them about their unknown god! Superstitious does not fit this context at all. To me, the NKJV rendering religious is an improvement. NKJV Criticism #29. In Acts 19:20, The NKJV changes the word of God, to the word of the Lord! #29 answered: In Acts 19:20, the Textus Receptus reads Ho Logos Tou Kuriou, THE word of THE Lord The Greek word here is Kurios Lord. The 1611 KJV translates kurios correctly as Lord 667 times, but, once, here in Acts 19:20, the 1611 KJV translators strangely switched to God. The Greek word for God, theos, is not in this verse in the Textus Receptus Greek text. The NKJV is correct in translating Kurios as Lord. NKJV Criticism #30 The NKJV changes heresy to sect in Acts 24:14. #30 answered: The 1611 KJV translates hairesis, as sect 5 times, and heresy 4 times. Hairesis is a sect when it refers to a group of people, and a heresy, when it refers to what they believe. The Jews considered EVERY RELIGION except Judaism to be a sect. Paul is speaking here of Christianity, the Way which they call a sect - a group of people the Jews call a sect. Since Paul is speaking here of a group of people, I believe the NKJV sect is a better translation. NKJV Criticism #31. The NKJV changes hold the truth in Romans 1:18, to suppress the truth. #31 answered: Thayers Lexicon states that Kat-ekh-o means to restrain, to suppress. The unbelieving world does not hold, or possess Gods Truth, they suppress it. 1 Cor. 1:18 and 2:14, state that the natural man cannot believe Gods Truth and thinks the Gospel is foolishness. I see the NKJV suppress as an improvement. NKJV Criticism #32. In Romans 1:25, the NKJV changes Who CHANGED the truth of God into a lie to who EXCHANGED the truth of God FOR the lie. #32 answered: Metallasso actually means to exchange. The unbelieving world does not change the Truth into a lie, they cannot change it, it IS Gods Truth. They exchanged it for a pseudos, a counterfeit! They exchanged it for systems of worship that exclude the Truth! Gods Truth is still Gods Truth - thankfully it CANNOT BE CHANGED. I see the NKJV translation as superior here. NKJV Criticism #33. In Romans 5:8, the NKJV changes commendeth to demonstrates. Rom 5:8 NKJV - But God DEMONSTRATES His own love toward us, in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us. #33 answered: Thayers Lexicon states that the form of sunistao in Rom 5:8 means to show, prove, establish, or exhibit. The English word commend in the 1611 KJV means to commit to, or entrust to. But, in Rom 5:8, God is not committing, or entrusting His Love to us, but God is proving or demonstrating His Love for us in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. I believe the NKJV demonstrates is a better translation in Rom 5:8. NKJV Criticism #34. In Romans 16:18, the NKJV changes good words and fair speeches to smooth words and flattering speech. #34 answered: The 1611 KJV good words here is chrestologia, from chrestos, meaning fit, appropriate, and pleasant, plus logos, words. Fair speeches is eulogia, meaning praise, and in a bad sense, language artfully adapted to captivate the hearer. The issue in Rom 16:18 is false teachers, who deceive the hearts of the simple (naive). The 1611 KJV translation good words is misleading here, because false teachers do not use good words to deceive, but the NKJV Smooth words and flattering speech better describes the deception of false teachers. NKJV Criticism #35. In 1 Cor. 1:21, the NKJV changes foolishness of preaching to foolishness of the message preached. #35 answered: kerugma here is not a verb, the act of preaching, as the 1611 KJV translates, but it is a noun, the message proclaimed. It is not the act of preaching here that the world considers foolish, but the message that is being proclaimed that the world considers foolish! The NKJV foolishness of the message preached more accurately translates the Greek noun kerugma here. NKJV Criticism #36. The NKJV changes saved to BEING SAVED, in 1 Cor. 1:18, attacking the believers security. The NKJV reads ... but unto us which are BEING saved it is the power of God. #36 answered: The Greek verb saved here is the PRESENT tense, passive voice of sodzo, which means presently being saved. I wish the translators would note the tenses of ALL the Greek verbs in the New Testament. sodzo means to preserve, to keep safe and sound, and is even used for physical healing. The Greek verb sodzo, in the present tense, describes the EXPERIENTIAL benefits of being a born again child of God. Experientially, were being DAILY saved from fears, doubts, anxiety, and, the power & domination of sin in our life. The closer we stay to God, the more we are being saved from these things that weigh us down. When we get out of fellowship, here come the fears, doubts, anxieties, and the tendency to succomb to sin, back into our life. There are 4 more verses in the Textus Receptus where we are presently being saved, 1 Cor 15:1&2, 2 Cor 2:15, 1 Pet 4:18, and Heb 7:25
Posted on: Sun, 31 Aug 2014 13:43:23 +0000

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