I met with a midwife today who told me that because my reason for previous cesarean was pelvic disproportion, my chance of VBAC was 50%. She said that although VBAC usually is successful about 80% of the time that if you narrowed it down to women who have their first by cesarean due to pelvic disproportion that it drops to 50%. Are these numbers aligned with your research too? Also, technically the hospital did not record my cesarean as pelvic disproportion but as failure to descend. I was a homebirth transfer and after 42 hours of laboring and dilating completely I spent 5 hours in various positions trying to push out my baby who was sunny-side up, asynclitic, and had a 15 inch head. We then attempted an epidural in hopes of relaxing things down there and ultimately ended up consenting to a c-section. Baby barely made it to +1 station. I had a low-transverse incision with no complications or infection and will be delivering my next baby in February, which will be 2.5 years from my last delivery (which was my first and only delivery). Im a cold hard facts kind of girl and I would love a little guidance from someone who can give it to me straight. Any insight?
Posted on: Fri, 19 Sep 2014 15:15:02 +0000
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