I would appreciate those who are much more knowledgable about this issue to please enlighten me! I see postings all the time about the children of those who are here illegally being US Citizens due to their being born here. My limited amount of research on this issue has shown me the following: Article 1, Section 8 enumerated the powers Congress has. The only power Congress has over citizenship is found here. It reads, “To establish an uniform Rule of Naturalization, and uniform Laws on the subject of Bankruptcies throughout the United States;” John A. Bingham, (R-Ohio) US Congressman, the supposed Architect of Section 1 of the 14th Amendment, March 9, 1866, wrote: I find no fault with the introductory clause, which is simply declaratory of what is written in the Constitution, that every human being born within the jurisdiction of the United States of parents NOT owing allegiance to any foreign sovereignty is, in the language of your Constitution itself, a natural born citizen; but, sir, I may be allowed to say further, that I deny that the Congress of the United States ever had the power or color of power to say that any man born within the jurisdiction of the United States, and NOT owing a foreign allegiance, is not and shall not be a citizen of the United States.” Illegal aliens, such as Mexicans here illegally or those persons who have overstayed their VISAs STILL have an allegiance to the country of Mexico or their country of origin/birth do they not? Therefore in MY humble little mind I wonder why their children, even though born here, are still considered anatural born citizens? Am I missing something here?
Posted on: Wed, 28 May 2014 16:47:18 +0000
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