Im a little hazy on what exactly Californias “affirmative consent” law is all about. Ive read some articles and they all seem to be saying what a wonderful thing it is, but not really what its going to do. As far as I can tell, investigators will ask victims if they gave consent when they file a report of assault, and say that they couldnt have given consent if they were drunk, asleep, impaired, etc. So, now instead of asking did you say no? they will ask did you say yes?? How does that change anything? Doesnt it still come down to his word vs her word? (or whatever variation of pronouns fits) Also, I know quite a few people that can get really drunk and not appear drink at all. So... Anyway, maybe one of you out there has a better understanding about how this will actually change things and could share that with me. Thanks.
Posted on: Tue, 30 Sep 2014 19:04:01 +0000