Im just a simple guy, so someone simply explain to me.... Capital Gains tax = Taxing profits one made thru a calculated investment. How/why is the government entitled to any of these profits when it assumed no risk? Inheritance tax = A person is diligent thru their life, sets aside a sum of $ for his/her heirs. The $ was no doubt taxed once when earned. How/why is the government entitled to tax these $ a second time and how/why is the government entitled to any of this familys private $?
Posted on: Wed, 21 Jan 2015 00:11:20 +0000
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