In keeping with Joseph Hardys new rules, I actually posted the following, as an effort to bring up the level of conversation. Just sharing this as an example of how nasty I am when I post, LOL But please feel free to discuss, since I think the post was hijacked, what a surprise: I would like a better understanding of how people from both doctrinal standpoints understand semi-pelagianism. Do we agree on who gets the label, or is it more commonly a term the reformed use for the non reformed. Secondarily, am I correct that we ALL reject pelagianism? I ask in light of the concept of evanescent grace (if you wish to discuss that, please start a separate OP). I had noticed it was a term used solely by non reformed, to describe reformed doctrine. My angle here has to do with how we understand/misunderstand one another. Though I still would like my question answered/discussed. Thanks in advance.
Posted on: Fri, 08 Aug 2014 23:32:38 +0000
Trending Topics
Recently Viewed Topics
© 2015