Issue for #Legal Discussion... An interesting statement by a commander from Hamas: We only Target Israeli Soldiers, we are not seeking to cause harm to civilians.. Without a doubt, many of Hamas rocket attacks are either indiscriminate or have intentionally targeted civilian objects (although many have targeted military objectives), however, even according to Israeli intelligence, all of Hamas nine cross-border operations have been targeted at military objectives... (timesofisrael/soldiers-not-civilians-are-tunnel-infiltration-goals-says-senior-intelligence-source/) I have never been a fan of Hamas and I disapprove of much of what they do, however it is worth to note that Israel has continuously insisted that any action taken by Hamas, even if directed against military objectives, is a terrorist act... Here a legal question arises... Does branding Hamas as a terrorist movement deny it the right, as part of a nation under colonial occupation, to resist this occupation? Remember, several national liberation movements across the world were branded terrorists by the regimes they fought against, for example think ANC in South Africa. Does the fact that Hamas has violated International Law on several occasions delegitimize the right to resist occupation? If so, what about all the states out there, including Israel, that have violated International Law... How did that discredit or delegitimze them?? Worth deliberating upon...
Posted on: Wed, 30 Jul 2014 01:11:18 +0000