Ive been studying the doctrine of holiness in the Greek New - TopicsExpress



          

Ive been studying the doctrine of holiness in the Greek New Testament and these are some interesting points: It is interesting that these verses all say that believers are sanctified in the perfect tense (Acts 20:32; Acts 26:18; 1 Cor. 1:2; Heb. 2:11; Heb. 10:10; Jude 1:1). DEFINITION OF PERFECT TENSE: The perfect tense in Greek corresponds to the perfect tense in English, and describes an action which is viewed as having been completed in the past, once and for all, not needing to be repeated. Jesus last cry from the cross, TETELESTAI (It is finished!) is a good example of the perfect tense used in this sense, namely It [the atonement] has been accomplished, completely, once and for all time. (Blueletterbible) The word in these passages is ἁγιάζω and it means to be consecrated or dedicated to God. The use of the perfect tense means that believers have been completely sanctified or that their sanctification has been accomplished completely. What is the basis, I wonder, for the idea of a progressive sanctification instead of an entire sanctification as these verses indicate to me? How can a person be partially dedicated to God or partially consecrated? It is all or nothing. A person is sanctified or they are unsanctified, holy or unholy, dedicated or not. These verses do not teach that believers are being sanctified in a progressive on-going sense, but that they have been sanctified in the past - something that has come to completion hence the perfect tense. 1 Cor. 6:11 uses the aorist tense to say that believers are sanctified but it also uses the aorist tense in that verse to say that believers are justified. So just as justification is spoken of as a past event that is completed and not an ongoing event, so also is sanctification spoken of as a past event that is completed and is not an ongoing event. Heb. 10:14 uses the present tense to say that believers are sanctified but that, as I understand it, means that they are presently sanctified. If a person says, I am sanctified they are speaking in the present tense in regards to something that has occurred or is completed. What exactly would a progressive sanctification look like? This year you repent of fornication and then maybe next year you repent of lying? And then the next year you repent of another sin? As I understand it, when you truly repent you repent of all the sins you are involved in. Now, if a believer returns to their sins they are for the time being impenitent and need to repent and be justified and sanctified again. But you cannot be justified and sanctified while you are impenitent or in sin. Sanctification, like justification, is lost when you backslide and needs to be restored afresh through fresh repentance. It is very interesting that when the Bible calls Christians Saints, it uses the Greek adjective ἅγιος (holy) in the substantive or as a noun. So when the Bible says be ye holy and when it says Christians are Saints, it uses the same exact word. The command to be holy is the command to be a Saint. And calling a believer a Saint is calling a believer holy. He that committeth sin is of the devil 1 John 3:8. Notice that in the Greek it reads thus: ὁ ποιῶν τὴν ἁμαρτίαν ἐκ τοῦ διαβόλου ἐστὶν ποιῶν is the present, active, participle form of ποιέω. The use of the present tense means he that is currently committing sin is of the devil. And 1 John 3:9 reads thus: πᾶς ὁ γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ Θεοῦ, ἁμαρτίαν οὐ ποιεῖ Notice here that the stem word ποιέω is in this form ποιεῖ for the present, active, indicative. That means that that whoever is born of God is not presently sinning.
Posted on: Wed, 30 Apr 2014 17:23:00 +0000

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