Ive heard over and over bydiverse Muslims claim that the Hebrew Scriptures/OT manuscripts are corrupted, but I have a few questions to ask concerning this doctrine of corruption put forth by certain Muslim teachers/apologists: The Quran says: We (Muslims) believe in the Revelation which has come down to us and in that which came down to you (Jews & Christians); our Allah and your Allah is One (29:46 AYA). And mix not truth with falsehood, nor conceal the truth [i.e. Muhammad is Allahs Messenger and his qualities are written in your Scriptures, the Taurat (Torah) and the injeel (Gospel)] while you know (the truth). [Al-Baqara 2:42) Question #1: What is the uncorrupted manuscript evidence of the Scriptural revelation that came down to Moses and Jesus? Next... The Quran sees itself as the guardian of the message of all Scripture: To thee We sent the scripture in truth, confirming the scripture that came before it, and guarding it in safety.. (5:48 MP/51 AYA). Question #2: Does the God of the Quran, the WE, actually GUARD the Scripture that came before it - or does it FAIL at GUARDING in your claims of it being corrupted? And if so, if the uncorrupted Scripture is truly GUARDED, where is it if the current Torah of Moses and the Gospels are corrupted? Next... The Quranic View of the Jewish and Christian Scripture should be respected: We believe in Allah, and in what has been revealed to us and what was revealed to Abraham, Ismail, Isaac, Jacob, and the Tribes, and in (the Books) given to Moses, Jesus, and the Prophets, from their Lord: We make no distinction between one and another among them. (3:84 AYA). Question #3: If there is Hebrew and Greek manuscripts that CONFIRMS the linguistic and contextual witness of the Quran, where are they? There is no Hebrew or Greek manuscripts that confirm the linguistic and contextual witness of the Quran that I know about. In fact, the evidence shows the exact opposite. So, where are Hebrew or Greek manuscripts of the Torah, prophets, and Gospels that confirm the overall linguistic and contextual witness of the Quran? Next.. According to the Quran, the Torah that was given to Moses, and the Gospel that was given to Jesus, are the Scriptures that the Jews and Christians now possess: Those who follow the Messenger (Mohammed), the Prophet who can neither read nor write, whom they will find described in the Torah and the Gospel (which are) with them. (7:157 MP). Thus, the Quran is not referring to Scripture that Jews and Christians use to possess in the past, but now are LOST. Rather, the Torah given to Moses, and the Gospel given to Jesus, is the Scripture that is with them (the Christians and Jews) and in their possession at the time of Muhammad. And unto thee (Muslims) have We revealed the Scripture (the Quran) with the truth, confirming whatever Scripture was before it, and a watcher over it. So judge between them by that which Allah hath revealed, and follow not their desires away from the truth which hath come unto thee. For each We have appointed a divine law and a traced-out way. Had Allah willed He could have made you one community. But that He may try you by that which He hath given you (He hath made you as ye are). So vie one with another in good works. Unto Allah ye will all return, and He will then inform you of that wherein ye differ. (5:43-48, MP) The key sentence from the above is, For each, We have appointed a divine law and a traced-out way. This verse is teaching that the different religious groups (Jews, Christians and Muslims), have each been given a divine law (Torah, Gospel and Quran) and that each group is to make their decisions based upon what they have been given. Question #4: So, if the Quran makes this very topic very clear, why are certain Muslims making the corrupted claim of the Scriptures? Next... The Quran encourages Jews to judge by the Torah: How come they (come) unto thee (Muhammad) for judgment when they have the Torah, wherein Allah hath delivered judgment (for them)? (5:43, MP) The Quran also urges Christians to judge by the Gospel: Let the People of the Gospel judge by that which Allah hath revealed therein. Whoso judgeth not by that which Allah hath revealed: such are evil-livers (5:47, MP) Question #5: Where did the Quran ever foretell of the Torah of Moses, or the Gospels of Jesus, being corrupted, if the Quran says that Jews should let the Torah judge them, and the Gospels judge the Christians. It DOESNT say they were corrupted. So, again, why are these corrupted accusations being made by devout Muslims? Look forward to the replies. Thanks again for taking time to read this. Lets have a healthy discussion about this issue because this topic of the Torah and Gospels being corrupted has come up more and more.. Take care. :)
Posted on: Sun, 16 Mar 2014 08:01:49 +0000