Just a Thought: I am studying four things: (1) A grammatical & exegetical study of the book of Hebrews, which includes a study of the book of Leviticus (2) A comprehensive study on the Westminster Confession of Faith, (3) A comprehensive study on Biblical Leadership & Shepherding, (4) A comprehensive study on Biblical Counseling. Pray for me!!! Hebrews 1:1-2, Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. In the Greek God is the Subject of Vs. 1&2; This includes the two verbs Spoke of verse 2 & has spoken of verse 1 (In the Greek spoke of verse 2 is the predicate of the Subject God as is shown in the ESV)) Of great importance is the tense & meaning of the words spoke & has spoken. It is the aorist tense, which indicate that God speaking by (through) the prophets and God speaking by (through) His (Greek a referring not to a son from many but A Son as the Unique Son, Only one) Son has finished (in both cases). In this context it means that: All of the Old Testament is viewed as one speech from God All of the New Testament is viewed as one speech from God Thus, God has spoken! Whatever else some might say concerning God speaking, the Bible is clear on this = GOD HAS SPOKEN & If you want to know what he said, go to the Bible, period!!! More to Come, Rev. B.
Posted on: Fri, 01 Nov 2013 20:37:59 +0000
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