Just a question. If we have better access to mental health care in the last 50 years, why has the number of cases of mental illness gone from approximately 1 in 468 to 1 in 76 in 2007? In 1954, the first drug to be claimed as a mental disorder cure, thorazine, was approved by the FDA. In 1987, prozac was approved and led the explosion of pharmacological treatments for mental illness. Why the increase? Again, just a question. No assertions. These are facts. So based on these facts, and Id welcome any fact that may disprove these numbers. Please someone prove these horrific numbers inaccurate. What factors do you think are involved. These numbers address the entire US.
Posted on: Wed, 19 Nov 2014 00:14:01 +0000
Trending Topics
Recently Viewed Topics
© 2015