Q.1 Statements: 1%2, 3*4, 5%7, 2@3, 4$5 Conclusions: I. 7 % 1 II. 2 * 5 Give answer - 1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or II is true. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5. If both conclusions I and II are true. Ans: 4 Q.2 Statements: 1%2, 3*4, 5%7, 2@3, 4$5 Conclusions: I. 1 % 3 II. 5 % 3 Give answer 1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or II is true 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true 5. If both conclusions I and II are true Ans: 5 Q.3 Statements: 5%6, 9©10, 7%8, 6@7, 8*9 Conclusions: I. 5 % 8 II. 5 © 10 Give answer 1. If only conclusion I is true 2. If only conclusion II is true 3. If either conclusion I or II is true 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true 5. If both conclusions I and II are true Ans: 1 Q.4 Statements: 5%6, 9©10, 7%8, 6@7, 8*9 Conclusions: I. 10 % 5 II. 10 % 8 Give answer 1. If only conclusion I is true 2. If only conclusion II is true 3. If either conclusion I or II is true 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true 5. If both conclusions I and II are true Ans: 2 Q.5 Statements: 2%4, 8@3, 4@6, 3*5, 8©6 Conclusions: I. 2 @ 5 II. 5 @ 2 Give answer 1. If only conclusion I is true 2. If only conclusion II is true 3. If either conclusion I or II is true 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true 5. If both conclusions I and II are true Ans: 3 Q.6 Statements: 2%4, 8@3, 4@6, 3*5, 8©6 Conclusions: I. 3 * 2 II. 4 @ 3 Give answer 1. If only conclusion I is true 2. If only conclusion II is true 3. If either conclusion I or II is true 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true 5. If both conclusions I and II are true Ans: 5 Q.7 Statements : All home are domicile. Some domicile are reside. No reside is shack. Conclusions : I. Some reside are home. II. Some domicile are not shack. Give answer - 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. Ans: 2 Q.8 Statements : All home are domicile. Some domicile are reside. No reside is shack. Conclusions : I. Some shack are home. II. Some home not being domicile is a possibility. Give answer 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. Ans: 4 Q.9 Statements : Some hut are hutch. No hutch is hovel. Some hovel is leo. Conclusions : I. Some hutch are leo. II. Some hutch being leo is a possibility. Give answer 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. Ans: 2 Q.10 Statements : Some hut are hutch. No hutch is hovel. Some hovel is leo. Conclusions : I. Some hut being hovel is a possibility. II. Some leo are not hut. Give answer 1. If only conclusion I follows 2. If only conclusion II follows 3. If either conclusion I or II follows 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows 5. If both conclusions I and II follow Ans: 1 Q.11 Statements : All trail are belated. No chase is tardy. No trail is chase. Conclusions : I. Some belated are not chase. II. Some tardy are not chase. Give answer 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. Ans: 5 Q.12 Statements : All trail are belated. No chase is tardy. No trail is chase. Conclusions : I. Some belated being tardy is a possibility. II. Some belated not being tardy is a possibility. Give answer 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. Ans: 5 Q.13 If each vowel in the word ‘SAINEMR’ is changed to next alphabet according to the English alphabetical series and each consonant changed to previous letter then how many alphabets will be there in the English alphabetical series between the letters which are at the extreme ends of the new word thus formed? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. Four Ans: 1 Q.14 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters T,U,H using each letter only once in each word? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three Ans: 2 Q.15 How many such digits are there in the number ‘40238976895’ each of which is as far away from the beginning in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three Ans: 4 Q.16 In which of the following pairs does both the members studies Hindi? 1. Dayavan, Desh 2. Diya, Desh 3. Deepti, Dhritarashtra 4. Dhritarashtra,Diya 5. Dayavan, Deepa Ans: 3 Q.17 Which of the following is true about Desh? 1. Desh study Hindi 2. Dhritarashtra and Deepti are immediate neighbours of Desh 3. Dhritarashtra sits third to left of Desh 4. Desh sits second to the left of Deepa 5. None is true Ans: 5 Q.18 What is Dayavan’s position with respect to Deepti? 1. Immediate right 2. Third to the right 3. Second to the left 4. Fourth to the left 5. Second to the right Ans: 5 Q.19 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1. Diya 2. Desh 3. Damini 4. Deepa 5. Deepti Ans: 5 Q.20 If all the eight friends are made to sit in alphabetical order in the anti-clockwise direction starting from Damini, positions of how many will remain unchanged (excluding Damini)? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. Four Ans: 2 Q.21 Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions- Among Meenu,Rana,Lovina,Nasir and Julie each scoring different marks in an examination, Rana scored more than Meenu. Nasir scored less than Lovina but more than Julie. Julie scored more than Rana. Who amongst them scored the least marks? 1. Rana 2. Meenu 3. Julie 4. Nasir 5. Lovina Ans: 2 Q.22 Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions- Among Meenu,Rana,Lovina,Nasir and Julie each scoring different marks in an examination, Rana scored more than Meenu. Nasir scored less than Lovina but more than Julie. Julie scored more than Rana. Whose score was the third highest? 1. Rana 2. Meenu 3. Julie 4. Nasir 5. Lovina Ans: 3 Q.23 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1. Drop 2. Slip 3. Bounce 4. Topple 5. Fall Ans: 3 Q.24 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GENOTOTYPE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three Ans: 3 Q.25 If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, fourth, sixth and eighth letters of the word THOMASFEILD, which of the following will be the third letter of that word from the left? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer. 1. T 2. R 3. S 4. X 5. Y Ans: 3 Q.26 Who sits at the extreme right end of the line? 1. Aamir 2. Anamika 3. Ajay 4. Amar 5. Azad Ans: 2 Q.27 How many persons sit between Ajeet and Amar? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.28 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1. Aamir, Amar 2. Aslam,Anamika 3. Ajay,Ajeet 4. Aslam,Azad 5. Ajeet,Aamir Ans: 4 Q.29 What is the position of Aslam with respect to Amar? 1. Immediate right 2. Immediate left 3. Third to the left 4. Second to the left 5. Second to the right Ans: 5 Q.30 If all the persons are made to sit in English alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many person will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. Four Ans: 2 Q.31 Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below- U * G $ K P T 3 & Z L 8 % R C J V F A M I © # @ E 4 N 5 9 D Q 2 S W 6 If all the letters are dropped from the above arrangement then which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end? 1. # 2. 6 3. 2 4. & 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.32 Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below- U * G $ K P T 3 & Z L 8 % R C J V F A M I © # @ E 4 N 5 9 D Q 2 S W 6 How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by vowel and also immediately followed by a consonant? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three Ans: 2 Q.33 Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below- U * G $ K P T 3 & Z L 8 % R C J V F A M I © # @ E 4 N 5 9 D Q 2 S W 6 Which of the following is sixth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end in the above arrangement? 1. 4 2. I 3. Z 4. 2 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.34 Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below- U * G $ K P T 3 & Z L 8 % R C J V F A M I © # @ E 4 N 5 9 D Q 2 S W 6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? UG P3 L% JF?? 1. ©# 2. MI 3. I# 4. I© 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.35 Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below- U * G $ K P T 3 & Z L 8 % R C J V F A M I © # @ E 4 N 5 9 D Q 2 S W 6 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1. UGK 2. 3Z8 3. CVF 4. I#E 5. 45D Ans: 3 Q.41 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). The swami performed /(1) a small puja /(2) and initiated a ‘Havan’ /(3) near the excavation site /(4). No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 5 Q.42 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). Holding free, fair and /(1) credible elections without /(2) further delay is essential for fulfilling the /(3) political aspire of the people of the country /(4). No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 4 Q.43 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). CBI has registered /(1) a preliminary enquiry to /(2) probe into the alleged irregularities /(3) on the purchase of wheat seeds /(4). No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 4 Q.44 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). There is no logical reason why /(1) private radio channels should /(2) be bar from broadcasting news when /(3) private TV channels are allowed to do so /(4). No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 3 Q.45 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). Taking the message from which /(1) the WHO-backed scientific research /(2) has found, the government must immediately make Euro-IV /(3) norms in vehicles mandatory across the country /(4). No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 1 Q.46 In each of the following questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer---- (I) Alice’s hair is always full of _________ and tangles. (II) _________ of anxious people stood waiting in the hall. 1. junk 2. knots 3. group 4. pins 5. herd Ans: 2 Q.47 In each of the following questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer---- (I) The children were wearing dirty _________ clothes. (II) The patient’s breathing was _________ and uneven. 1. torn 2. strenuous 3. linen 4. ragged 5. useless Ans: 4 Q.48 In each of the following questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer---- (I) The dog found a ________ in the ground o hide in from the wind. (II) Will their good intentions become realities or are they just __________ promises. 1. hole 2. cavern 3. lame 4. distressing 5. hollow Ans: 5 Q.49 In each of the following questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer---- (I) She slipped on the ice and ___________ her knee. (II) This report shows how she __________ the truth to claim successes where none, in fact, existed. 1. twisted 2. broke 3. hid 4. tampered 5. gathered Ans: 1 Q.50 In each of the following questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer---- (I) The city lifestyle seems to ________ her as she’s certainly looking very well. (II) He brought a $12 million libel _________ against the newspaper, claiming his professional reputation had been damaged by the paper’s stories. 1. advance 2. suit 3. prevent 4. case 5. manage Ans: 2 Q.51 Choose the option for (51) 1. abandoned 2. extended 3. nourished 4. stalled 5. deviated Ans: 2 Q.52 Choose the option for (52) 1. eager 2. minor 3. forward 4. rapid 5. spaced Ans: 4 Q.53 Choose the option for (53) 1. resources 2. development 3. ground 4. land 5. economies Ans: 1 Q.54 Choose the option for (54) 1. depressing 2. violating 3. increase 4. formulating 5. rising Ans: 5 Q.55 Choose the option for (55) 1. practically 2. efficient 3. stability 4. temporary 5. basic Ans: 2 Q.56 Choose the option for (56) 1. dead-start 2. nature 3. hustle 4. delay 5. dead-end Ans: 5 Q.57 Choose the option for (57) 1. richness 2. popularity 3. poverty 4. famine 5. floods Ans: 3 Q.58 Choose the option for (58) 1. abundance 2. crisis 3. challenging 4. momentary 5. situation Ans: 2 Q.59 Choose the option for (59) 1. valuable 2. circumstantial 3. furnished 4. scarce 5. available Ans: 4 Q.60 Choose the option for (60) 1. health 2. historic 3. crop 4. field 5. labour Ans: 1 Q.61 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. Odisha’s handling of the very severe cyclone will be a landmark success story in disaster management. All . 1. handling 2. severe 3. landmark 4. disaster 5. All Ans: 5 Q.62 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. The cyclone has devastate the communications system and power supply in all the affected districts, uprooted trees and overturned trucks. All . 1. devastate 2. communications 3. uprooted 4. overturned 5. All Ans: 1 Q.63 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. The desire by governments to retain controls over media is refracted in many ways. All . 1. desire 2. governments 3. retain 4. refracted 5. All Ans: 4 Q.64 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. Tourists is the single largest employer worldwide and that’s a big plus for a labour surplus economy such as ours. All . 1. Tourists 2. employer 3. labour 4. surplus 5. All Ans: 1 Q.65 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. The thrust has been to introduce new innovative techniques at the policy-making stage. All . 1. thrust 2. introduce 3. innovative 4. policy-making 5. All Ans: 5 Q.66 What difference has the author stated between ‘poverty’ and ‘education’? 1. Education requires a lot of money whereas poverty is exactly its opposite. 2. In education we have to focus on long term outcomes whereas poverty makes us pay attention to short term issues. 3. Education and poverty are dissimilar because to gain one you have do away with the other, which if not possible in a country like India. 4. Education must be acquired through skills and talent whereas poverty is something one is born with. 5. None of the above Ans: 2 Q.67 Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in context of the ? 1. Elementary education has no meaning unless treated as a basis for further education over years. 2. Poor people fail to plan for their future as they have to live from day to day. 3. Poor people have less energy due to unhygienic conditions and lack of nourishing food. 4. Mid day meal programme served as a live example of the fact that poor people just want to have proper food and do not give a care about their own education. 5. The author had once been to a village whose children had gone through the trauma of seeing their own school vanish under water. Ans: 4 Q.68 What reasons have been mentioned because of which poor are not able to attain education properly? (A) Unable to maintain regularity at schools (B) Lack of proper sanitation facilities (C) Displacement of villages as well as street vendors (D) Limited resources to eat (E) Lack of adequate clothes to wear to schools 1. Only A 2. B, C, D and E 3. Both B and D 4. Both C and E 5. A, B, C and D Ans: 5 Q.69 Which of the following sentences is/are TRUE in context of the ? 1. The slum dwellers have recently administered a dose of deworming medicine in their own localities. 2. Poverty has a corrosive effect on children’s health and mental capacities. 3. Poverty compels children to study hard and not pay any attention on their duties of bringing in money at home by working. 4. All of the above 5. Both 1 and 2 Ans: 2 Q.70 What jobs is a girl supposed to perform, along with her mother, who belongs to such poor strata? (A) Sweep floor (B) Look after sibling (C) Cooking (D) Teaching her siblings 1. Only D 2. Both A and B 3. All except D 4. Both B and D 5. Only A Ans: 3 Q.71 What reason has been mentioned in the which leads to stereotyping? 1. Caste or religion 2. Lagging behind other children 3. Lack of proper study material 4. Non-payment of fees 5. Both 1 and 2 Ans: 5 Q.72 Choose the word most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold, as used in the . Incompatibility 1. Insoluble 2. Similarity 3. Disagreement 4. Practicality 5. Enmity Ans: 3 Q.73 Choose the word most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold, as used in the . Interrupt 1. Disturb 2. Hurdle 3. Demolish 4. Frequent 5. Highlight Ans: 1 Q.74 Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the . Clarity 1. Utility 2. Vulnerability 3. Accuracy 4. Obscurity 5. Certainty Ans: 4 Q.75 Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the . Subdued 1. Solemn 2. Dejected 3. Controlled 4. Demanding 5. Cheerful Ans: 5 Q.76 Which of the Phrases(1), (2) (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrases printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically . If the sentence is as it is given and no ion is required, mark (5) as the answer. When peace is disrupted, nobody’s business prospered. 1. nobody’s business prospers 2. nobody’s business prospering 3. nobody’s business is prospers 4. nobody’s business has prospering 5. No ion required Ans: 1 Q.77 Which of the Phrases(1), (2) (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrases printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically . If the sentence is as it is given and no ion is required, mark (5) as the answer. One should ditch the politics of negative to pushed growth and good governance. 1. negativity to pushing growth 2. negativity for push growth 3. negativity to push growth 4. negativity in push growth 5. No ion required Ans: 3 Q.78 Which of the Phrases(1), (2) (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrases printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically . If the sentence is as it is given and no ion is required, mark (5) as the answer. The forming at the council will take a big step forward once the terms of reference for the council, are approved. 1. formation of the counseling 2. formation of the council 3. formation to the council 4. formation in the council 5. No ion required Ans: 2 Q.79 Which of the Phrases(1), (2) (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrases printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically . If the sentence is as it is given and no ion is required, mark (5) as the answer. He had sent a letter to the human resources development ministry some months ago on nurturing grassroots talent and sports in schools. 1. nurturing grassroots talented 2. nurture grassroots talent 3. nurturing to the grassroots talents 4. nurturing for the grassroots talent 5. No ion required Ans: 5 Q.80 Which of the Phrases(1), (2) (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrases printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically . If the sentence is as it is given and no ion is required, mark (5) as the answer. The role of education in reducing poverty has wide recognized. 1. is widely recognize 2. has widely recognized 3. was wide recognized 4. is widely recognized 5. No ion required Ans: 4 Q.81 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the questions given below? 44 × 18 - 80.5 × 8 = ? + 12.80 1. 1935.2 2. 1825.6 3. 2018.4 4. 1748.5 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.82 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the questions given below? 28 + 46 × 1443 ÷ 39 = ? + 82.50 1. 1634.8 2. 1647.5 3. 1643.2 4. 1674.6 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.83 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the questions given below? -5871 + 5854.75 + 2362.35 = ? + (12)3 1. 526.2 2. 736.8 3. 445.6 4. 618.1 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.84 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the questions given below? 106% of 7725 - 39% of 7720= ? 1. 5177.7 2. 5228.6 3. 5316.2 4. 5422.4 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.89 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the questions given below? 886 × 888 - 1428 - 836 = ? 1. 772850 2. 784504 3. 793610 4. 805220 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.90 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the questions given below? 3321 + 3442 - 2418 = ? + 1224 1. 3121 2. 3112 3. 3221 4. 3211 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.91 What is the average number of employees in finance department in all the institutes? 1. 133 2. 131 3. 132 4. 134 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.92 What is the total number of employees in all the departments in Institute D ? 1. 980 2. 970 3. 960 4. 990 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.93 What is the respective ratio between the number of employees in marketing and management departments in all the institutes? 1. 149 : 134 2. 151 : 135 3. 10 : 9 4. 153 : 133 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.94 The number of employees in IT department of institute B is approximately what percent of the total number of employees in the same institute? 1. 27% 2. 31% 3. 18% 4. 15% 5. 23% Ans: 5 Q.95 The number of employees in IT department in institute E is approximately what percent more that that in finance department? 1. 40% 2. 60% 3. 57% 4. 52% 5. 47% Ans: 3 Q.96 If the difference between a number and two-fifth of the same number is 30, find the number? 1. 50 2. 75 3. 57 4. 65 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.97 What will be the compound interest on an amount of Rs.5000 for a period of 2 years at 8 p.c.p.a.? 1. Rs. 840 2. Rs. 450 3. Rs. 823 4. Rs. 416 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.98 A 175 metres long train crosses a 35 metres platform in 12 seconds. What is the speed of train (in km/h.)? 1. 63 2. 61 3. 75 4. 62 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.99 What is the cost of painting a hall whose area is 729 sqm. if the rate of painting per square metre is Rs. 28? 1. Rs. 3042 2. Rs. 2053 3. Rs. 3756 4. Can’t be determined 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.100 26 men can complete a piece of work in 17 days. How many more men must be hired to complete the work in 13 days? 1. 8 2. 5 3. 7 4. 18 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.101 What is the least number to be added to 4700 to make it a perfect square? 1. 74 2. 63 3. 76 4. 61 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.103 The difference between 89% of a number and 73% of the same number is 448. What is 49% of that number? 1. 1124 2. 1372 3. 1426 4. 1218 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.104 If an amount of Rs.41910 is distributed equally amongst 22 persons. How much amount would each person get? 1. Rs. 2105 2. Rs. 2000 3. Rs. 1885 4. Rs. 1990 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.105 The cost of 12 note books and 16 pens is Rs. 852. What is the cost of 9 note books and 12 pens? 1. Rs. 743 2. Rs. 639 3. Rs. 675 4. Can’t be determined 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.106 What is the product of 858 and 781? 1. 681048 2. 670098 3. 671048 4. 670189 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.107 The ratio of present ages of father and son is 5:2. The difference of their ages is 13.5 years. What will be the ratio of their ages after 8 years? 1. 60 : 38 2. 48 : 17 3. 61 : 34 4. 34 : 61 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.108 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the number series given below ? 17 70 384 ? 7564 22683 1. 1925 2. 1850 3. 1950 4. 1895 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.109 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the number series given below ? 60750 12150 ? 7290 21870 1. 35650 2. 36650 3. 36450 4. 36455 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.110 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the number series given below ? 125 185 261 ? 461 585 1. 353 2. 365 3. 368 4. 332 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.114 A train 200 metres long passes a platform 150 m long in 35 seconds. The speed of the train in (metre/second) is - 1. 20 2. 15 3. 30 4. 10 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.115 In how many different ways can the letters of the word APTITUDE be arranged? 1. 40320 2. 10080 3. 5040 4. 20160 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.117 What approximate value should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions ? 3850 ÷ 48 + 61.104 × 72.98 = ? 1. 4760 2. 4820 3. 4850 4. 4645 5. 4535 Ans: 5 Q.119 What approximate value should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions ? 864.180 × 719.98 = ? + 612.899 1. 611000 2. 632500 3. 621500 4. 630250 5. 608050 Ans: 3 Q.121 Recently famous agricultural scientist MS Swaminathan has been selected for the Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration for the year 2012.Which among the following statement(s) about him is/are not true? (A) Indian geneticist and former member of Lok Sabha. (B) Contributed in revitalizing agriculture in the country and led the nation to achieve green revolution. (C) Previously served as Director general of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research. 1. Only A 2. Only B 3. Only C 4. A and B 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.122 IFC (International Finance Corporation)launches $ 1 billion offshore rupee bonds to strengthen India’s Capital Markets. Which among the following statement/statements about it is/are not true? (A) Established in 1956 as an arm of the World Bank Group. (B) It is the largest global development institution focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries. (C) It is owned by 180 member countries, a group which together governs its policies. 1. Only A 2. Only B 3. Only C 4. A and B 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.123 The measurements by Curiosity Rover of NASA re-instated the fact that Mars is mostly composed of which gas? 1. Nitrogen 2. Hydrogen 3. Methane 4. Carbon Dioxide 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.124 Which country has become the first member of the Euro Zone, to exit an International bail -out programme? 1. Ireland 2. Greece 3. Italy 4. Austria 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.125 Recently stampede was caused by rumours that a bridge they were crossing was about to collapse, near a temple at Ratangarh in _____________________. 1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Haryana 4. Bihar 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.126 What does both ‘R’ stands for in the abbreviation “IOR-ARC”? 1. RIM, Regional 2. Rural, Regional 3. Rational, Remedy 4. Regulatory, Rural 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.127 Under money laundering the initial point of entry for funds derived from any criminal activities is referred to as - 1. Layering 2. Integration 3. Placement 4. Extradition 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.128 TripAdvisor’s 2013 Travelers Choice Attractions Awards ranked India’s Taj Mahal among the top ______landmarks in the world.. 1. four 2. two 3. three 4. five 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.129 What is the currency of Israel? 1. Rial 2. Shekel 3. Dinar 4. Dirham 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.130 When a fixed deposit receipt is kept with the bank for its safety, it is known as _____________ 1. safe deposit 2. safe custody 3. valid safe deposit 4. locker 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.131 Small Industries Development Bank of India is a wholly subsidiary of __________ 1. RBI 2. Exim Bank 3. NABARD 4. IDBI 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.132 Who is the author of the book “City of Bohane”? 1. Salman Rushdie 2. Mark Rasinovich 3. Ruskin Bond 4. Kevin Barry 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.133 If a person borrows money from a bank or any other financial institutions it is known as a __ 1. interest 2. commercial borrowing 3. loan 4. dividend 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.134 India for the continuous second year reported no fresh cases of polio. By which year India would win a status of polio free nation? 1. 2016 2. 2014 3. 2013 4. 2015 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.135 Eurois not the currency of which country? 1. Belgium 2. Austria 3. Chile 4. Cyprus 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.136 The headquarter of Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is situated at __. 1. Mumbai 2. Kolkata 3. New Delhi 4. Chennai 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.137 Which of the following technological devices given below uses Radio-frequency/wave? 1. TV remote 2. Bluetooth 3. Microwave oven 4. All the above 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.138 What is S/2004 N1? 1. It is the new discovered moon of Pluto. 2. It is the new discovered moon of Uranus. 3. It is the new discovered moon of Neptune 4. It is the new discovered moon of Jupiter. 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.139 In 2013 India bids adieu to the telegram service after 163 years. Telegram service started in India during the reign of_____. 1. Lord Wellesley 2. Lord Dalhousie 3. Lord Wellington 4. Lord Canning 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.140 The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of _________. 1. expectancy 2. education 3. income indices 4. All of the above 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.141 If RBI wants to expand credit of the banks,it will _____________ 1. increase the bank rate 2. decrease the bank rate 3. keep the bank rate unchanged 4. All the above 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.142 “World Investment Report” is annually published by———————. 1. UNDP 2. UNESCO 3. World Bank 4. UNCTAD 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.143 What is “CALCS” ? (A) It is a rating model for domestic banks. (B) It is a rating parameter for foreign banks. (C) It is a rating symbol for domestic banks. 1. Only A 2. Only B 3. Only C 4. A and B 5. B and C Ans: 2 Q.144 What is the order of the process of risk management ? (A) Risk Control or Risk Mitigation (B) Monitoring and Reviewing (C) Risk Identification (D) Risk Measurement or Quantification 1. D,B,C,A 2. C,D,A,B 3. A,B,C,D 4. B,A,D,C 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.145 Which committee is related with Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR) ? 1. Usha Thorat Committee 2. Rakesh Mohan Committee 3. C. Rangarajan Committee 4. Deepak Mohanty Committee 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.146 Risk that is associated with the failure of internal processes of a bank or business organisation is ————. 1. Settlement Risk 2. Procedural Risk 3. Operational Risk 4. Credit Risk 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.147 Under notice money market, the funds are transacted by banks for—————. 1. one day 2. over night 3. 2 and 14 days 4. 15 days and above 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.148 Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of ——. 1. a debenture certificate 2. a share certificate 3. a usance promissory note 4. a bill of exchange 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.149 The nobel prize in Physics has been announced to be given to physicists Francois Englert of Belgium and Peter Higgs of Britain for the discovery of the so-called Higgs particle or ‘God- Particle’ also known as the Higgs Bosson at Cern laboratory which is situated at—————. 1. Paris 2. London 3. Tokyo 4. Geneva 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.150 Recently, India post has launched “Instant Cash” an instant electronic money transfer service in partnership with——————. 1. National Stock Exchange 2. Wipro 3. Reliance 4. Wall Street Exchange 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.151 As per the latest data, which country is the world’s biggest net oil importer ? 1. India 2. Russia 3. China 4. France 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.152 India’s Deborah clinches two gold medals in a championship held in Thailand. Deborah is associatd with———————. 1. Golf 2. Cycling 3. Boxing 4. Wrestling 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.153 Which bank has won the Golden Peacock Award 2013 for excellence in Corporate Governance? 1. Bank of Baroda 2. Punjab National Bank 3. Vijaya Bank 4. Canara Bank 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.154 World’s first malaria vaccine called RTSS was recently developed by GlaxoSmithKline. GlaxoSmithKilne is a ————— drug maker. 1. British 2. American 3. Australian 4. Russian 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.155 “World Habitat Day” is observed on——————. 1. 3 October 2. 5 October 3. 7 October 4. 10 October 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.156 What is the current share of manufacturing sector in GDP ? 1. 14% 2. 10% 3. 21% 4. 16% 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.157 A Medium Term Note (MTN) programme is launched by a bank to—————. 1. provide Loans 2. purchase Shares 3. raise Funds 4. sell equity 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.158 Which among the following finance ministers of India presented the Union Budget on his birthday ? 1. Morarji Desai 2. Manmohan Singh 3. Yashwant Sinha 4. Jaswant Singh 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.159 National Development Council was set up on—————- 1. 1 August 1960 2. 3 August 1950 3. 6 August 1952 4. 29 August 1951 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.160 Which among the following is the regulator of the commodity market in India ? 1. NCDEX 2. SEBI 3. MCX 4. Forward Markets Commission 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.161 What should be used if a company wants to include its company name and logo at the bottom of every page of a brochure? 1. Header 2. Macro 3. Footer 4. Footnote 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.162 _________ is an event-driven programming language developed in the early 1990. 1. C 2. Visual Basic 3. C++ 4. Pascal 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.163 Linux is a_____ 1. Utility program for peer-to-peer file sharing 2. Real-time operating system 3. Network operating system 4. PDA platform 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.164 The_________ computer runs the front-end applications software in a network. 1. Client 2. Database 3. Server 4. CPU 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.165 Which of the following is used for close a tab on a browser? 1. Ctrl + T 2. Ctrl + W 3. Ctrl + A 4. Ctrl + Y 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.166 Each computer in _______is also identified by a IP Address which is unique among the computers in that ________. 1. Internet 2. Intranet 3. Extranet 4. Ethernet 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.167 Which of the following displays the list of websites visited by you in last few days ? 1. Status bar 2. Task bar 3. History list 4. Tool bar 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.168 A proxy server is used for performing which of the following task? 1. To provide security against unauthorized users 2. To process client requests for web pages 3. To process client requests for database access 4. To provide TCP/IP 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.169 In a database, a field is a –------. 1. Lable 2. Table of information 3. Group of related records 4. Category of information 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.170 A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working ly is known as -------. 1. Boot 2. Bug 3. Biff 4. Strap 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.171 A set of step-by-step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a(n) —------. 1. algorithm 2. hardware program 3. software bug 4. firmware program 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.172 The main directory of a disk is called the………directory. 1. root 2. sub 3. folder 4. network 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.173 A………is a collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of records in a table. 1. spreadsheet 2. presentation 3. database 4. web page 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.174 When you create documents, graphs and pictures your computer holds the data in— 1. Restore file 2. Backup drive 3. Clip board 4. Memory 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.175 All are included in removable media except the— 1. CD-ROMs 2. Diskette 3. DVDs 4. Hard disk drive 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.176 The CPU and memory are located on the ----------. 1. expansion board 2. motherboard 3. storage device 4. output device 5. display board Ans: 2 Q.177 A ............ is an additional set of commands that the computer displays after you make a selection from the main menu 1. dialog box 2. submenu 3. menu selection 4. All of the above 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.178 A letter, memo, proposal or other file that is created using Microsoft Word is called as--- 1. Master 2. Slide 3. Document 4. Worksheet 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.179 Which of the following are parts of the CPU? 1. Secondary Memory 2. Control unit 3. Input device 4. Printer 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.180 Which is not the portable computer? 1. Micro-processor 2. Calculator 3. Series Computers 4. Parallel Computers 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.181 How can you make the selected character superscripted? 1. Ctrl + = 2. Ctrl + Shift + = 3. Alt + Ctrl + Shift + = 4. All the Above 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.182 Which of the following statement is false? 1. You can set different header footer for even and odd pages 2. You can set different page number formats for different sections 3. You can set different header footer for first page of a section 4. You can set different header and footer for last page of a section 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.183 To delete and embed an object, first 1. Double click the object 2. Select the object by clicking it 3. Press the Shift + Delete keys 4. Select it and then press Delete key 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.184 ——————— shortcut key is used for Bold highlighted selection. 1. Ctrl + B 2. Ctrl + A 3. Ctrl + C 4. Ctrl + Z 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.185 The communication mode that supports two-way traffic but only one direction at a time, it is -------. 1. Simplex 2. half duplex 3. duplex 4. multiplex 5. All of the above Ans: 2 Q.186 Other folders, named subfolders, can remain in the folders while creating hierarchical structure— 1. Mini folder 2. Tread folder 3. Subfolders 4. Object 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.187 The following are included in the word program………….Title Bar, Ribbon, Status Bar, Views, Document workspace. 1. Window 2. Browser 3. Explorer 4. Website 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.188 Which topology requires a multipoint connection? 1. Mesh 2. Star 3. Bus 4. Ring 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.189 In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together. 1. IMPs 2. Host computers 3. Networks 4. Routers 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.190 ————— was the first network. 1. CSNET 2. NSFNET 3. ANSNET 4. RPANET 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.191 Which is the valid data type in Access? 1. Text 2. Currency 3. Number 4. All of the above 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.192 The spelling dialog box can be involved by choosing spelling from ________ menu. 1. View 2. Tools 3. Insert 4. File 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.193 Which language does MS-Word use to create Macros? 1. Visual C++ 2. FoxPro 3. Access 4. Visual Basic 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.194 A motherboard is a_________ 1. central chip that processes instructions 2. permanent storage device 3. case containing all internal system components 4. circuit board containing the CPU and RAM 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.195 A stylus would most likely be used with a_________ 1. PDA 2. Mouse pad 3. Trackball 4. Digital camera 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.196 Which of the following is a read only memory storage device? 1. CDROM 2. Floppy Disk 3. Hard Disk 4. All of the above 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.197 What is the short cut key to highlight the entire column in MS-Excel? 1. Ctrl +Page Up 2. Ctrl +C 3. Ctrl +Space Bar 4. Ctrl +Enter 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.198 Which key deletes the character to the right of the cursor? 1. Backspace 2. Delete 3. End 4. Home 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.199 Which of the following is a programming language? 1. MS-Excel 2. Lotus 3. Netscape 4. Pascal 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.200 In a computer, _____ is capable to store single binary bit. 1. Register 2. Flip flop 3. Inductor 4. Capacitor 5. None of these Ans: 2 bankercorner.blogspot.in/2013/12/latest-mcq-on-gkgabanking.html
Posted on: Wed, 04 Dec 2013 15:05:34 +0000
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