Q.1 The questions given below contain two statements giving - TopicsExpress



          

Q.1 The questions given below contain two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question ? In which direction is Mahatmajis statue facing ? I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city. II. The statues shadow falls towards East at 5 Oclock in the evening. Mark answer- 1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient. 3. If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient. 4. If statement I and II together are not sufficient. 5. If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient. Ans: 4 Q.2 The questions given below contain two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question ? What is the total number of pupils in the class in final year? I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class. II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years. 1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient. 3. If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient. 4. If statement I and II together are not sufficient. 5. If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient. Ans: 2 Q.3 The questions given below contain two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question ? Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ? I. A is taller than D. II. B is taller than A and D. Mark answer 1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient. 3. If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient. 4. If statement I and II together are not sufficient. 5. If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient. Ans: 4 Q.4 In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider statement and the following assumption and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI. Assumptions : I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season. II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI. III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure their kharif crop immediately after harvest. 1. None is implicit 2. Only I and II are implicit 3. Only II and III are implicit 4. Only I and III are implicit 5. Only I is implicit Ans: 4 Q.5 In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider statement and the following assumption and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life. Assumptions : I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood. II. This may bring meaning of education in the mind of the youths. III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment. 1. Only I and II are implicit 2. Only III is implicit 3. Only I and III are implicit 4. None is implicit 5. Only II is implicit Ans: 1 Q.6 If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be 333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799 ? 1. II 2. III 3. IV 4. I 5. V Ans: 2 Passage Q.7 How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ? Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857 1. Five 2. Four 3. Three 4. Six 5. None of these Ans: 4 Passage Q.8 For the input given below, which of the following will be third step ? Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358 1. 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358 2. 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358 3. 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358 4. 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358 5. None of these Ans: 3 Passage Q.9 Which number will be sixth from the left in step V of input given below ? 234, 456, 295, 109, 120, 346 1. 58 2. 55 3. 20 4. 42 5. None of these Ans: 2 Passage Q.10 If in input 234,456,295,109,120,346, the third and fourth number will change their position to each other then after arrangement what will be the step III ? 1. 120, 234, 109, 346, 456, 295 2. 120, 109, 456, 295, 234, 346 3. 120, 109, 295, 456, 234, 346 4. 120, 234, 109, 456, 346, 295 5. None of these Ans: 1 Passage Q.11 If the letters of the word PROTECTION which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will be substituted by X ? 1. E 2. O 3. T 4. I 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.12 VINA 1. (5) (0) (5) (15) 2. (5) (25) (5) (25) 3. (5) (30) (5) (30) 4. (5) (10) (5) (30) 5. None of these Ans: 2 Passage Q.13 AGE 1. (0) (15) (0) 2. (15) (15) (15) 3. (0) (10) (10) 4. (0) (5) (0) 5. None of these Ans: 4 Passage Q.14 NEAR 1. (5) (20) (20) (5) 2. (5) (25) (5) (25) 3. (5) (15) (15) (5) 4. (5) (10) (5) (10) 5. None of these Ans: 3 Passage Q.15 ROOF 1. (30) (5) (30) (5) 2. (5) (25) (5) (25) 3. (5) (20) (20) (5) 4. (5) (15) (15) (5) 5. None of these Ans: 3 Passage Q.16 The letters I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R. The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2. Which number is assigned to K ? 1. 5 2. 12 3. 7 4. 11 5. 9 Ans: 2 Passage Q.17 Who is E ? 1. Priest 2. Psychologist 3. Statistician 4. Surgeon 5. None of these Ans: 2 Passage Q.18 How is A related to E ? 1. Brother 2. Uncle 3. Father 4. Grandfather 5. None of these Ans: 4 Passage Q.19 How many male members are there in the family ? 1. One 2. Three 3. Four 4. Two 5. None of these Ans: 2 Passage Q.20 Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Poonam walks 6 km towards south then she turns to her left and walks 4 km. Again, she turns towards west and walks 4 km. Now she turns right and walks 6 km. Finally, she turns left and walks 3 km. How far is she from her starting point ? 1. 6 km 2. 5 km 3. 10 km 4. 3 km 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.21 Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Poonam walks 6 km towards south then she turns to her left and walks 4 km. Again, she turns towards west and walks 4 km. Now she turns right and walks 6 km. Finally, she turns left and walks 3 km. Now, in which direction is she from her starting point ? 1. East 2. West 3. North-East 4. South 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.22 Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Poonam walks 6 km towards south then she turns to her left and walks 4 km. Again, she turns towards west and walks 4 km. Now she turns right and walks 6 km. Finally, she turns left and walks 3 km. After taking a second turn if she turns towards north and walks 5 km, then in which direction is she from her ending point ? 1. North 2. South-West 3. South-East 4. South 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.23 What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the given series? 20, 20, 19, 16, 17, 13, 14, 11, ?, ? 1. 10, 10 2. 10, 11 3. 13, 14 4. 13, 16 5. 14, 14 Ans: 1 Q.24 What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the given series? 11, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001 1. 101 2. 110 3. 111 4. 112 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.25 In a certain code RTNOCIROTUB is written as IBEFXRIFBCY. How will IHORPBITION be written in that code ? 1. RSFYBRESPOM 2. RSFIGYRBRFE 3. RSFYBERPOME 4. RSFBYRESPEF 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.26 In these questions relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions I and II . Statements: B= Y>Z, R>SR=F Conclusions: I. B>F II. B>Z Mark answer 1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or II is true. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5. If both conclusions I and II are true. Ans: 5 Q.27 In these questions relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions I and II . Statements: B= Y>Z, R>SR=F Conclusions: I. S>N II. SG II. B < G Mark answer 1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or II is true. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5. If both conclusions I and II are true. Ans: 3 Q.29 In these questions relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions I and II . Statements: /Images/137661871398738.jpg Conclusions: I. P=C II. P>C Mark answer 1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or II is true. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5. If both conclusions I and II are true. Ans: 3 Q.30 In these questions relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions I and II . Statements: /Images/137661909522085.jpg Conclusions: I. D>R II. R>C Mark answer 1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or II is true 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true 5. If both conclusions I and II are true Ans: 4 Q.31 Statements: Some > are /Images/137662000473364.jpg . All > are = Only = is /Images/137662000473364.jpg No /Images/137662000473364.jpg is < Conclusions I. Some > are > II. Some>being /Images/137662000473364.jpg is a possibility. Give answer- 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. Ans: 2 Passage Q.32 Statements: Some > are /Images/137662177123395.jpg All > are = Only = is /Images/137662177123395.jpg No /Images/137662177123395.jpg is . Give answer- 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. Ans: 5 Passage Q.33 Statements: Some > are /Images/1376626002273.jpg All > are = Only = is /Images/1376626002273.jpg No /Images/1376626002273.jpg is < Conclusions: I. All those= which are not /Images/1376626002273.jpg being < is a possibility. II. All = being < is a possibility. Give answer- 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. Ans: 1 Passage Q.34 Statements: Only IV is V All V are II Only II is I Only I is III Conclusions: I. All I being III is a possibility. II. Some II are not IV. Give answer- 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. Ans: 1 Passage Q.35 Statements: Only IV is V All V are II Only II is I Only I is III Conclusions: I. All IV are II. II. All III not being V is a possibility. Give answer 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. Ans: 2 Passage Q.36 In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequences were to be continued ? Question figures Answer figures /Images/137662767347274.jpg 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 2 Q.37 In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequences were to be continued ? Question figures Answer figures /Images/137662796076284.jpg 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 5 Q.38 In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequences were to be continued ? Question figures Answer figures /Images/13766287872835.jpg 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 1 Q.39 In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequences were to be continued ? Question figures Answer figures /Images/137662927347395.jpg 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 3 Q.40 In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequences were to be continued ? Question figures Answer figures /Images/137662953386961.jpg 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 3 Q.41 Why, according to the author, people don’t report if a mobile device is lost or stolen? 1. They never store financial information on their mobile phones 2. They decide to buy a new and better mobile phone 3. They feel no action would be taken against the culprit 4. They report but the reports do not come to notice 5. Not mentioned in the passage Ans: 5 Passage Q.42 According to the passage, what kind of challenges are financial institutions facing? 1. Increasing number of accounts 2. Smishing attacks 3. Wrong identity of account holders 4. Frequent internet usage 5. None of these Ans: 2 Passage Q.43 From the information given in the passage, which of the following can be termed as ‘cyber criminals’? 1. Those who are involved in social crimes 2. Those who lie to others about their bank accounts 3. Those who receive threat of life in some way 4. Those who target mobile banking users 5. All of the above Ans: 4 Passage Q.44 How is Smishing different from SMS phishing? 1. Smishing involves internet usage whereas SMS phishing does not 2. Smishing is advanced SMS phishing 3. They are not different 4. Smishing is quite popular these days whereas SMS phishing is an old concept 5. Not mentioned in the passage Ans: 3 Passage Q.45 In case of high risk transaction .how do banks alert the users/ customers? 1. They inform the users on phone 2. They call the customers to be present at the bank 3. They send warning letter to the customer 4. They take the matter to court 5. None of these Ans: 1 Passage Q.46 Mobile devices are vulnerable because of - 1. Their accessibility 2. Their portable nature 3. The information stored and accessed on them 4. Only 1 and 3 5. Only 2 and 3 Ans: 5 Passage Q.47 Choose the word most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold, as used in the passage. Divulge 1. Exhibit 2. Adopt 3. Disclose 4. Tolerate 5. Recognize Ans: 3 Passage Q.48 Choose the word most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold, as used in the passage. Rendering 1. Making 2. Judging 3. Explaining 4. Reading 5. Surrendering Ans: 1 Passage Q.49 Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. Vulnerable 1. Ready 2. Tender 3. Mature 4. Secure 5. Sensitive Ans: 4 Passage Q.50 Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. Managing 1. Allowing 2. Supervising 3. Executing 4. Mentoring 5. Working Ans: 1 Passage Q.51 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). A Heavy rush of devotees (1)/was seen on the two temples (2)/to seek the blessings (3)/of the deities (4)/ No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 2 Q.52 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). Houses could be constructed (1)/ a meter above the ground (2)/in places whose (3)/were vulnerable to flooding (4)/ No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 3 Q.53 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). The ships are equipped (1)/with extensive weaponry including (2)/surface to surface and surface to air missiles (3)/ and various rapid fire guns (4)/ No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 5 Q.54 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). Music should always be (1)/ a mix of tradition and innovative (2)/to ensure that it reaches (3)/maximum audience without any bias (4)/ No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 2 Q.55 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). The crowds of devotees begin (1)/fleeing as the small makeshift bridge (2)/collapsed unable (3)/to withstand their weight (4)/ No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Ans: 1 Q.56 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space given. Below each five words have been denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which word can be filled up in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. Akhilesh was accompanied by ———————ministers at the press conference. 1. any 2. several 3. particular 4. precise 5. uncommon Ans: 2 Q.57 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space given. Below each five words have been denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which word can be filled up in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The most ——————method of weight management is lifestyle changes 1. effective 2. adequate 3. agile 4. talented 5. gifted Ans: 1 Q.58 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space given. Below each five words have been denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which word can be filled up in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. Broccoli retains the most nutrients when —————raw 1. produces 2. cooking 3. consume 4. eaten 5. package Ans: 4 Q.59 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space given. Below each five words have been denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which word can be filled up in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The creative writing workshop is aimed at ——————-the writing skills of students 1. performing 2. breaking 3. honing 4. instructed 5. polishes Ans: 3 Q.60 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space given. Below each five words have been denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which word can be filled up in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The use of plastic ————-to pack magazines, greeting cards and invitation cards has been banned. 1. disguise 2. veil 3. layer 4. surface 5. cover Ans: 5 Q.61 Choose the option for (61) 1. description 2. tag 3. identification 4. schedule 5. motto Ans: 3 Passage Q.62 Choose the option for (62) 1. need 2. right 3. wish 4. claim 5. require Ans: 3 Passage Q.63 Choose the option for (63) 1. nistributing 2. grouping 3. flowing 4. growing 5. collecting Ans: 5 Passage Q.64 Choose the option for (64) 1. settle 2. verify 3. declare 4. display 5. review Ans: 2 Passage Q.65 Choose the option for (65) 1. destination 2. prospect 3. plan 4. purpose 5. view Ans: 4 Passage Q.66 Choose the option for (66) 1. phone 2. directory 3. Aadhaar 4. PAN 5. ration Ans: 3 Passage Q.67 Choose the option for (67) 1. producer 2. worker 3. user 4. contractor 5. provider Ans: 5 Passage Q.68 Choose the option for (68) 1. works 2. pushes 3. struggles 4. pursues 5. scratches Ans: 1 Passage Q.69 Choose the option for (69) 1. nowhere 2. anywhere 3. however 4. round 5. together Ans: 2 Passage Q.70 Choose the option for (70) 1. exhibit 2. utilize 3. create 4. sharpen 5. check Ans: 5 Passage Q.71 Which of the following is the FIRST statement after rearrangement? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E Ans: 3 Passage Q.72 Which of the following is the THIRD statement after rearrangement? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E Ans: 2 Passage Q.73 Which of the following is the FIFTH statement after rearrangement? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E Ans: 1 Passage Q.74 Which of the following is the SECOND statement after rearrangement? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E Ans: 5 Passage Q.75 Which of the following is the FOURTH statement after rearrangement? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E Ans: 4 Passage Q.76 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. The success of the children helpline has encouraged the government to provide the service to women. All 1. helpline 2. encouraged 3. provide 4. service 5. All Ans: 5 Q.77 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. The fire broke out at the third flour of the building and the flames went up till the eighth floor. All 1. broke out 2. flour 3. flames 4. till 5. All Ans: 2 Q.78 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. There is a dire need to create an awareness among the general public to beware of rogue developers, builders and colonizers who are fraudulent trying to sell land . All 1. dire 2. awareness 3. rogue 4. fraudulent 5. All Ans: 4 Q.79 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. The government should come out with a clear policy of capital punishment rather than rezort to selective hanging. All 1. come out 2. capital punishment 3. rezort 4. hanging 5. All Ans: 3 Q.80 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. Both the friends entered into a heat argument which led to a gun fight. All 1. entered 2. heat 3. led 4. fight 5. All Ans: 2 Q.81 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? /Images/137660792067125.png 1. /Images/137660794453929.png 2. /Images/137660796517812.png 3. /Images/137660798694016.png 4. /Images/13766080111046.png 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.82 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 23 × 15 – 60 + ? ÷ 31 = 292 1. 218 2. 186 3. 217 4. 201 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.83 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 15% of 578 + 22.5% of 644 = ? 1. 231.4 2. 233.6 3. 231.8 4. 231.6 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.84 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? /Images/137660848615664.png 1. 1 2. 2 3. 4 4. 7 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.85 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? /Images/137660864030051.png 1. /Images/137660865689894.png 2. /Images/137660866945696.png 3. /Images/137660868092298.png 4. /Images/13766086932158.png 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.86 Akhil invested 10% more than Rahul. Rahul invested 10% less than Suneel. If the total sum of their investment is Rs. 5780. How much amount did Suneel invest? 1. Rs. 2010 2. Rs. 2000 3. Rs. 2100 4. Rs. 2210 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.87 The circumference of two circles is 132 metres and 176 metres respectively. What is the difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle? 1. 1048 m2. 2. 1076 m2. 3. 1078 m2. 4. 1090 m2. 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.88 In how many different ways can the letters of the word OFFICES be arranged? 1. 2520 2. 5040 3. 1850 4. 1680 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.89 At present Radha is eight times of her daughters age. After eight years from now, the ratio of the ages of Radha and her daughter will be 10:3 respectively. What is Radhas present age? 1. 32 years 2. 40 years 3. 36 years 4. Cant be determined 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.90 12 men complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days can eight men complete the same piece of work? 1. 28 days 2. 36 days 3. 48 days 4. 52 days 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.91 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 9 62 ? 1854 7415 22244 1. 433 2. 309 3. 406 4. 371 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.92 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 4 8 24 60 ? 224 1. 178 2. 96 3. 109 4. 141 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.93 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 8000 1600 320 64 12.8 ? 1. 2.56 2. 3.5 3. 3.2 4. 2.98 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.94 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 6 9 15 27 51 ? 1. 84 2. 99 3. 123 4. 75 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.95 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 7 8 18 ? 232 1165 1. 84 2. 42 3. 57 4. 36 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.96 If the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 14500 in two years is Rs. 4676.25, what is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.? 1. 11% 2. 9% 3. 15% 4. 18% 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.97 The number obtained by interchanging two digits of a two digit number is lesser than the original number by 54. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 12 then what is the original number? 1. 28 2. 39 3. 82 4. Cant be determined 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.98 A bus started its journey from Ramgarh and reached Devgarh in 44 minutes with average speed of 50 km./hr. If the average speed of the bus is increased by 5 km./hr. How much time will it take to cover the same distance? 1. 40 minutes 2. 38 minutes 3. 36 minutes 4. 31 minutes 5. 49 minutes Ans: 1 Q.99 The average marks in Science subject of a class of 20 students is 68. If the marks of two students were misread are 48 and 65 of the actual marks 72 and 61 respectively, then what would be the average? 1. 68.5 2. 69 3. 69.5 4. 70 5. 66 Ans: 2 Q.100 Angle A of a quadrilateral ABCD is 26o less than angle B. Angle B is twice of angle C and angle C is 10o more than angle D. What would be the measure of angle A? 1. 104o 2. 126o 3. 56o 4. 132o 5. 106o Ans: 5 Q.101 In each of the following questions, two equations (I ) and (II) are given. You have to solve them and (I) x2 – 1 = 0 (II) y2 + 4y + 3 = 0 1. If x > y 2. If x > y 3. If x < y 4. If x < y 5. If x = y or relationship can not be established Ans: 2 Q.102 In each of the following questions, two equations (I ) and (II) are given. You have to solve them and (I) x2 – 7x + 12 = 0 (II) y2 – 12y + 32 = 0 1. If x > y 2. If x > y 3. If x < y 4. If x < y 5. If x = y or relationship can not be established Ans: 4 Q.103 In each of the following questions, two equations (I ) and (II) are given. You have to solve them and (I) x3 – 371 = 629 (II) y3 – 543 = 788 1. If x > y 2. If x > y 3. If x < y 4. If x < y 5. If x = y or relationship can not be established Ans: 3 Q.104 In each of the following questions, two equations (I ) and (II) are given. You have to solve them and (I) 5x – 2y = 31 (II) 3x + 7y = 36 1. If x > y 2. If x > y 3. If x < y 4. If x < y 5. If x = y or relationship can not be established Ans: 1 Q.105 In each of the following questions, two equations (I ) and (II) are given. You have to solve them and (I) 2x2 + 11x + 12 = 0 (II) 5y2 + 27y + 10 = 0 1. If x > y 2. If x > y 3. If x < y 4. If x < y 5. If x = y or relationship can not be established Ans: 5 Q.106 What is the approximate percentage of the boys who have participated in dance out of the total number of boys? 1. 19% 2. 23% 3. 16% 4. 27% 5. 14% Ans: 1 Passage Q.107 What is the approximate percentage of the girls participated in solo song out of all the total participants? 1. 11% 2. 15% 3. 6% 4. 20% 5. 18% Ans: 1 Passage Q.108 What is the total number of girls who have participated in group song and drama together? 1. 192 2. 196 3. 184 4. 168 5. 175 Ans: 2 Passage Q.109 What is the ratio between number of boys to the number of girls respectively who have participated in solo song? 1. 1:2 2. 2:1 3. 4:3 4. 3:2 5. None of these Ans: 1 Passage Q.110 What is the difference between the number of boys and girls who have participated in dance? 1. 63 2. 35 3. 28 4. 126 5. None of these Ans: 3 Passage Q.111 Which village has the least number of children? 1. L 2. N 3. Q 4. O 5. None of these Ans: 3 Passage Q.112 What is the respective ratio of the number of women in village L and P together to the number of men in the same villages together? 1. 617 : 664 2. 629 : 691 3. 664 : 617 4. 691 : 629 5. None of these Ans: 4 Passage Q.113 What is the total number of women and children together in village Q? 1. 995 2. 1184 3. 1086 4. 988 5. None of these Ans: 5 Passage Q.114 The total number of people from village O is approximately what percent of the total number of people from all the villages together? 1. 16% 2. 21% 3. 11% 4. 25% 5. 9% Ans: 1 Passage Q.115 What is the total number of children from village M and N together? 1. 785 2. 825 3. 855 4. 795 5. None of these Ans: 2 Passage Q.116 What is the difference in the number of products manufactured by the company in the 2013 and 2012? 1. 4000 2. 5500 3. 3500 4. 4500 5. None of these Ans: 5 Passage Q.117 The number of products sold by the company in the year 2008 is what percent of the number of products manufactured in that year? (Upto two places of decimal) 1. 71.43% 2. 69.72% 3. 45.36% 4. 67.42% 5. None of these Ans: 1 Passage Q.118 What is the percent increase in the number of products sold by the company in the year 2010 from the previous year? (Upto two places of decimal) 1. 19.25% 2. 33.33% 3. 10.45% 4. 42.66% 5. None of these Ans: 2 Passage Q.119 What is the respective ratio of the number of products not sold by the company in the year 2011 to those not sold in the year 2009? 1. 4 : 3 2. 3 : 1 3. 1 : 3 4. 5 : 1 5. None of these Ans: 3 Passage Q.120 What is the approximate average number of products manufactured by the company over the years together? 1. 36550 2. 39480 3. 41220 4. 43330 5. 34420 Ans: 4 Passage Q.121 Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about Foreign Direct Investment? (A) It is direct investment into production in a country by a company in another country. (B) It is done by expanding operations of an existing business in that country. (C) It is done for many reasons including to take advantage of high wages. 1. Only A 2. All A, B and C 3. B and C 4. A and B 5. Only C Ans: 4 Q.122 Cheque Truncation System (CTS) or Image-based Clearing System (ICS), in India, is a project undertaken by _______for faster clearing of cheques. 1. Reserve Bank of India 2. Government of India 3. NABARD 4. State Bank of India 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.123 At which of the following places will the International Film Festival of India (IFFI) 2014 be held? 1. Berlin, Germany 2. New Delhi, India 3. Lodwar, Kenya 4. Goa, India 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.124 What is Leverage? 1. Ratio of capital to assets 2. Ratio of assets to capital 3. Ratio of capital to market risk 4. Ratio of market risk to capital 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.125 The portion of a company’s profits not paid out as dividends to shareholders is called_______. 1. Deferred Tax Assets 2. Revaluation reserves 3. Capital reserves 4. Risk Weighted Assets 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.126 What do we get by dividing the capital of the bank with aggregated risk weighted assets for credit risk, market risk and operational risk? 1. ICAAP 2. GAAR 3. CRAR 4. SLR 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.127 Which of the following is Not a main function of financial market? 1. It provides facilities for interaction between the SEBI and the borrowers. 2. It provides pricing information resulting from the interaction between buyers and sellers in the market when they trade the financial assets. 3. It provides security to dealings in financial assets. 4. It ensures liquidity by providing a mechanism for an investor to sell the financial assets. 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.128 Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT true about capital market? 1. They are related to long term funds. 2. It deals in commercial papers and trade bills. 3. Stockbrokers, underwriters, mutual funds, financial institutions are participants in it. 4. It is regulated by Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI). 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.129 Which of the following does Not provide micro credit in India? 1. Domestic commercial banks 2. Regional Rural Banks 3. SEBI 4. Co-operative Banks 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.130 International Development Association (IDA) is an institution of which of the following international organizations? 1. UNESCO 2. FAO 3. World Bank 4. WHO 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.131 Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate comes under the _________ 1. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) 2. Refinance facilities 3. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) 4. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.132 Recently who has been elected as the Chairman of Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)? 1. K. R. Kamath 2. Pratip Chaudhuri 3. T. S. Vijayan 4. U. K. Sinha 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.133 Which of the following organizations has been given the responsibility by the Tourism Ministry to maintain cleanliness and hygiene at six tourist destinations across the country, as part of its Clean India campaign? 1. GAIL 2. CIL 3. BHEL 4. ONGC 5. HAL Ans: 4 Q.134 What is the rank of M.S. Dhoni on the recently released Forbes’ list of highest-paid athletes? 1. 3rd 2. 16th 3. 13th 4. 20th 5. 18th Ans: 2 Q.135 Expand CFRA. 1. Combined Finance and Recurring Accounts 2. Combined Finance and Revenue Accounts 3. Combined Forum and Revenue Accounts 4. Combined Finance and Revenue Assets 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.136 Name the Indian Weightlifter who has clinched three gold medals at the 15th Asian Youth Weightlifting Championships in Doha? 1. Lalu Taku 2. Akshay B. Gaikwad 3. Vicky Batta 4. Sudhir Kumar Chitradurga 5. Arun Murugesan Ans: 2 Q.137 Which among the following laid foundation stone of Nirbhaya Bhawan, the permanent headquarters of the National Commission for Women at a function in New Delhi, recently? 1. Pranab Mukherjee 2. Pratibha Patil 3. Kapil Sibbal 4. Manmohan Singh 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.138 ‘Devaluation’ means _____. 1. Converting rupees into gold 2. Lowering of the value of one currency in comparison to some foreign currency 3. Making rupee dearer in comparison to some foreign currency 4. All of the above 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.139 Consider the following features of Narrow Banking and find out one that is Not true? 1. Banks in India completely implement the narrow banking 2. In narrow banking there is rarely Asset Liability Mismatch 3. It helps the banks to reduce the NPAs 4. Tarapore Committee is best known for giving the concept of narrow banking. 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.140 According to the mobile banking conceptual model, it can be said to consist of three inter-related concepts. Which of the following is among those three interrelated concepts? (A) Mobile Accounting (B) Mobile Brokerage (C) Mobile Financial Information Services (D) Mobile Database 1. Only A 2. All A, B, C and D 3. B and C 4. A, B and C 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.141 Which scheme was specifically introduced to manage excess liquidity arising out of huge capital flows coming to India from abroad? 1. Marginal Standing Facility 2. Open Market Operations 3. Liquidity Adjustment Facility 4. Market Stabilisation Scheme 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.142 Which pilot project has recently been launched by the Government of India that would be a comprehensive database for crimes and criminals? 1. Crime and Criminal Database System (CTS) 2. Database for Crime and Criminal(DCC) 3. Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and System (CCTNS) 4. India Crime Tracking System (ICTS) 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.143 What the system is called which is hosted on the public website of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which has been developed for members of the public to submit any individual application to RBI and keep track of the status of its disposal thereafter? 1. ATM 2. ATS 3. CTS 4. ICS 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.144 Which among the following is an indirect instrument used by RBI to regulate the availability, cost and use of money and credit? 1. Cash Reserve Ratio 2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio 3. Liquidity Adjustment Facility 4. Refinance facilities 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.145 Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is an important factor in the economy of a country. Which among the following is a / are the major benefit(s) of FDI? (A) Improves Forex position of the country (B) Helps in employment generation and increase in production (C) Helps in capital formation by bringing fresh capital 1. Only A 2. A and B 3. B and C 4. All A, B and C 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.146 If RBI sells the government securities in the open market, what will be its effect on the Indian economy? 1. The cost of loans and advances would decrease. 2. There would be an increase in the supply of money. 3. There would be a decrease in the supply of money. 4. The cost of loans and advances would increase. 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.147 Which short-term instrument is issued by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India to meet the temporary mismatches in the cash flow of the Government? 1. Cash Management Bills 2. Dated Government Securities 3. Zero Coupon Bonds 4. State Development Loans 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.148 Consider the following statements about Government securities: (A) Government securities are available in a wide range of maturities from 91 days to as long as 30 years to suit the duration of a bank’s liabilities. (B) Government securities can be sold easily in the secondary market for State Development Loans (SDLs). (C) Government securities can also be used as collateral to borrow funds in the repo market. Which of the above statement(s) depicts reason(s) for why should one invest in the Government securities ? 1. Only A 2. A and B 3. A and C 4. B and C 5. All A, B and C Ans: 3 Q.149 Balance of Payments (BoP) accounts are an accounting record of all monetary transactions between _______. 1. The Central Bank and the commercial banks of a country 2. The Central Government with the State Governments of a country 3. A developed and the developing countries 4. A country and the rest of the world 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.150 Shortfall in fulfilling the targets of Priority Sector and agricultural finance by domestic commercial banks shall be deposited with which of the below entity? 1. RIDF 2. SIDBI 3. RBI 4. IDBI 5. SBI Ans: 1 Q.151 The Chameli Devi Jain Award is given for an outstanding woman ____. 1. Scientist 2. Reporter 3. Player 4. Teacher 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.152 Which rate is quoted as one unit of base currency against a number of units of a variable currency 1. Spot rate 2. Base rate 3. Cash rate 4. Cash Reserve Rate 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.153 Which of the following is not directly involved in rural lending? 1. Cooperatives 2. RRBs 3. Commercial banks 4. SIDBI 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.154 Which of the following is a very well known name in the field of Banking in India? 1. Meira Kumar 2. Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw 3. Kiran kumar 4. Dr.D.Subbarao 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.155 Bank Rate means________. 1. interest rate charged by money lenders 2. the official rate of interest charged by the Central Bank of a country 3. interest rate charged by the Scheduled Banks 4. rate of profit of the Banking Institutions 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.156 The Government of India has appointed ___________as “Income Tax Refund Banker”. 1. IOB 2. Canara Bank 3. SBI 4. Bank of India 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.157 Narrow Money and Broad Money are represented in the concepts of money supply used by Reserve Bank of India, are denoted respectively by ________. 1. M1 & M2 2. M1 & M4 3. M2 & M4 4. M1 & M3 5. M2 & M3 Ans: 4 Q.158 LIBOR stands for__________. 1. London Interbank Offered Rate 2. London Intrabank Offer Rate 3. Lincoln International Office Rule 4. Lincoln Internet Banking Open Rate 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.159 Recently the Government of India has approved the proposal of providing loans to woman Self-Help Groups (SHGs) at a lower interest rate of ___ to eradicate poverty through women empowerment. 1. 10% 2. 11.5% 3. 7% 4. 5.5% 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.160 The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ‘P-Notes’. What is the full form of ‘P-Notes’ ? 1. Permanent Notes 2. Purchase Notes 3. Participatory Notes 4. Private Notes 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.161 Which of the following memory has the shortest access time? 1. Cache memory 2. Magnetic bubble memory 3. Magnetic core memory 4. RAM 5. Register Ans: 5 Q.162 In comparison with static RAM memory, the dynamic RAM memory has --------. 1. Lower bit density and higher power consumption 2. Higher bit density and higher power consumption 3. Lower bit density and lower power consumption 4. Higher the bit density and Lower power consumption 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.163 What type of magnetic material is normally used in bubble memories? 1. Magnetic core 2. Cobalt 3. Garnet 4. Mettallic 5. Copper Ans: 3 Q.164 Which memory system is not as a mass memory medium? 1. Semiconductor memory 2. Magnetic tape 3. Magnetic disk 4. Magnetic drum 5. Floppy disk Ans: 1 Q.165 A logically related database that is stored over two or more physically independent sites? 1. Desktop database 2. Distributed database 3. Enterprise database 4. Centralised database 5. Single database Ans: 2 Q.166 A nonprocedural language that is used by a DBMS to manipulate its data? 1. Object Language 2. Query language 3. C++ Language 4. Structural Language 5. Both 1 and 2 Ans: 2 Q.167 A specialized server that enables client to share application and data across the network.It is called - 1. Data Server 2. Storage Server 3. Mass Server 4. Host Server 5. File server Ans: 5 Q.168 A Network, that is larger than a LAN, typically connecting clients and servers from multiple buildings, but within a limited geographic area.It is called ---------. 1. WAN 2. TAN 3. ELAN 4. MAN 5. WLAN Ans: 4 Q.169 A discrete unit of information sent from one node on a network to another is called ---------. 1. Frame 2. Data 3. Information 4. Packet 5. Datum Ans: 4 Q.170 The desirable characteristic (s) of a memory system is (are) -------. 1. Speed and reliability 2. Speed and reliability 3. Durability and Compactness 4. All 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.171 Typical data transfer rates in LAN are of the order of -------. 1. Bits per sec 2. Kilo bits per sec 3. Mega bits per sec 4. All of the above 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.172 The control of the job running within a system is called -----. 1. Job monitoring 2. Job stream 3. Job min 4. Job step 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.173 You can add a hyperlink to your worksheet by pressing ----. 1. Alt +K 2. Ctrl + H 3. Ctrl + K 4. Ctrl + shift + K 5. Alt + Ctrl + K Ans: 3 Q.174 Tab scrolling button -------. 1. Allow you to view a different worksheet. 2. Allow you to view additional worksheet rowdown. 3. Allow you to view additional worksheet column to the right. 4. Allow you to view additional sheet tabs. 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.175 You can insert labels for -------. 1. All the data markers on a chart. 2. A data series 3. A selected data marker 4. All 5. None of other Ans: 4 Q.176 Which of the following shortcut is used to close the active window? 1. ALT+F5 2. CTRL + F4 3. Alt + F6 4. CTRl + W 5. Both 2 and 4 Ans: 2 Q.177 To switch to the previous tab in a dialog box We use --------. 1. Ctrl+Shift+Tab 2. Ctrl + Alt + Tab 3. Alt + Tab 4. Ctrl + Tab 5. Alt + Ctrl + Tab Ans: 1 Q.178 Which of the following is not common word processing packages? 1. Soft word 2. Word Star 3. Word Perfect 4. Microsoft word 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.179 What is URL? 1. Uniform Resource Locator 2. Uniform Resource Location 3. United Resource Locator 4. United Rim Locator 5. Union Resource Link Ans: 1 Q.180 The Unix operating system is written in language - 1. Cobal 2. C 3. Binary 4. Fortran 5. C# Ans: 2 Q.181 An interface that can transfer more than 1 bit at a time.It connects external devices such as printers, that is known as --------. 1. Mouse port 2. Keyboard port 3. Serial port 4. Parallel port 5. Universal serial Bus (USB) port Ans: 4 Q.182 10 Base FL, F stands for --------. 1. Fiber-optic 2. Film Transistor 3. Fan speed 4. Fan speed 5. Firewall speed Ans: 1 Q.183 When a user running a request on a web browser then the browser uses ------ to send a request a page, the browser uses ----- to send a request via ------- to the web server. 1. HTTP UDP 2. HTTP, TCP 3. SMTP UDP 4. HTML TCP 5. SNMP, HTML Ans: 2 Q.184 Which of the following is not application layer protocols? 1. FTP 2. SMTP 3. Telnet 4. UDP 5. DHCP Ans: 4 Q.185 A location on the world wide web that contains information about a specific topic.It is called --------------. 1. URL 2. HTTP 3. Web Address 4. Link 5. Website Ans: 5 Q.186 Second-stage testing of computer products, typically done by potential customer and outside experts to identify problem that need to be fixed before the product can be released for sale.This type of testing is known as - 1. Alpha Testing 2. Beta Testing 3. Gamma Testing 4. Meta Testing 5. both 2 and 3 Ans: 2 Q.187 Back up refers to - 1. Job scheduling failure 2. Accumulation of programs in the memory 3. Delays in production of output 4. Retain deleted copies 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.188 --------- is a storage area on a disk used to organize files. 1. Document 2. File 3. Software 4. Window Explorer 5. Folder Ans: 5 Q.189 Repetitive information that appear at the bottom of every page of a document, which is known as - 1. Footer 2. Footnote 3. Header 4. Headnote 5. Footprint Ans: 1 Q.190 A non impact printer that form character by spraying tiny, electrically charged ink droplet on paper.It is called ---------. 1. Dot Matrix 2. Ink jet Printer 3. Plotter 4. Line Printer 5. Thermal Printer Ans: 2 Q.191 Which of the following is not a database? 1. dBASE 2. FOX-BASE 3. FOX-PRO 4. ORACLE 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.192 Which of the following is not a spread sheet? 1. LOTUS 2. SYMPHONY 3. MS Excel 4. Wordstar 5. Both 2 and 4 Ans: 4 Q.193 ------- command is used to rename the old file with another name. 1. Ren 2. Rem 3. Cd 4. CF 5. Md Ans: 1 Q.194 Which of the following is not the feature of window operating system? 1. GUI 2. Multitasking 3. Plug and play 4. All 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.195 --------- is the default storage location for the files created in the windows. 1. My Computer 2. My Downloads 3. My Document 4. Recycle Bin 5. Task bar Ans: 3 Q.196 A Hexadigit can be represented by ---------. 1. 3 binary (consecutive) bits 2. 4 binary (consecutive) bits 3. 8 binary (consecutive) bits 4. 16 binary (consecutive) bits 5. 10 binary (consecutive) bits Ans: 2 Q.197 -------- appears at the very bottom of the window and provides such information as the cursor position, current page number, the number of words in the document. 1. Menu Bar 2. Status Bar 3. Tool Bar 4. Title Bar 5. Window Bar Ans: 2 Q.198 Which of the following is/are feature (s) of word processing? 1. Word-wrap 2. Editing 3. Macros 4. Formatting 5. All Ans: 5 Q.199 Which of the following is/are not web Browser? 1. Internet Explorer 2. Netscape Navigator 3. Mozilla firefox 4. Safari 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.200 An E-mail address consists of - 1. Login name 2. @ Sign 3. Domain name 4. All 5. None of these Ans: 4
Posted on: Fri, 01 Nov 2013 14:23:34 +0000

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