Q.1 Which animal is exhibited on Friday? 1. Bear 2. Rhino 3. Ostrich 4. Gorilla 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.2 Who is the caretaker of Peacock? 1. P 2. T 3. S 4. Q 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.3 Tiger is exhibited on which day? 1. Tuesday 2. Wednesday 3. Friday 4. Monday 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.4 Which animal is being looked after by S? 1. Gorilla 2. Peacock 3. Tiger 4. Bear 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.5 Rhino is exhibited in the zoo on which day? 1. Friday 2. Saturday 3. Wednesday 4. Sunday 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.6 In a certain code language RECAST is written as WUHYGF than what will be code of ENGAGE in that code language? 1. SLYUSU 2. SLUYUS 3. SLUYSU 4. SUULYS 5. None of these Not Ans: 3 Q.7 Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Ravi walks 7 km. towards south and his wife walks 8 km. towards north. After some time both turn towards left and walk 5 km. Ravis wife turns right and walks 2 km. What is the distance between Ravi and her wife? 1. 7 km. 2. 12 km. 3. 18 km. 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these Not Ans: 4 Q.8 Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Ravi walks 7 km. towards south and his wife walks 8 km. towards north. After some time both turn towards left and walk 5 km. Ravis wife turns right and walks 2 km. Now, if his wife turns right and walks 1 km. then she is facing in which direction? 1. East 2. West 3. North 4. South 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.9 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group? 1. Krishna River Basin 2. Penner River Basin 3. Kaveri River Basin 4. Gangas River Basin 5. Mahi River Basin In Ans: 5 Q.10 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group? 1. Giani Zail Singh 2. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 3. Shankar Dayal Sharma 4. Gerald Ford 5. Kocheril Raman Narayanan Not Ans: 4 Q.11 Statements : Some H2 are not O2. Some O2 are not K2. All K2 are N2. Conclusions : (I) All O2 being N2 is a possibility. (II) Some N2 are not H2. 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows 5. If both conclusions I and II follow In Ans: 1 Q.12 Statements : Some H2 are not O2. Some O2 are not K2. All K2 are N2. Conclusions : (I) Some N2 are not O2. (II) Some O2 are not N2. 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows 3. If either conclusion I or II follows 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows 5. If both conclusions I and II follow. In Ans: 4 Q.13 Statements : Some H2 are not O2. Some O2 are not K2. All K2 are N2. Conclusions : (I) Some O2 being H2 is a possibility. (II) Some H2 not being O2 is a possibility. 1. If only conclusion I follows. 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or II follows 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows 5. If both conclusions I and II follow In Ans: 1 Q.14 Statement : No assumption is a argument. No argument is a logic. Some logic is conclusion. Conclusions : (I) Some argument are not conclusion. (II) Some conclusion are not argument. 1. If only conclusion I follows 2. If only conclusion II follows 3. If either conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows 5. If both conclusions I and II follow In Ans: 2 Q.15 Statement : No assumption is a argument. No argument is a logic. Some logic is conclusion. Conclusions : (I) All logic being conclusions is a possibility. (II) Some argument are not assumption. 1. If only conclusion I follows 2. If only conclusion II follows 3. If either conclusion I or II follows 4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows 5. If both conclusions I and II follow In Ans: 5 Q.16 In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true. Give answer - Statement : Ice > Cream = Choco, Cream > Sweet < Toffee Conclusions : (I) Cream = Toffee (II) Toffee > Cream 1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or II is true. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5. If both conclusions I and II are true. Ans: 4 Q.17 In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true. Give answer - Statement : Ice > Cream = Choco, Cream > Sweet < Toffee Conclusions : (I) Ice > Sweet (II) Choco > Sweet 1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or II is true. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5. If both conclusions I and II are true. In Ans: 5 Q.19 In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true. Give answer - Statements : August > September, June < July < May Conclusions : (I) August > May (II) May > August 1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or II is true 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5. If both conclusions I and II are true. In Ans: 3 Q.20 In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true. Give answer - Statements : August > September, June < July < May Conclusions : (I) May > June (II) June < May 1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or II is true. 4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true 5. If both conclusions I and II are true. In Ans: 2 Q.21 Who is/are immediate neighbours of Muradabadi? 1. Mumtaza 2. Mehjabi 3. Mubarake 4. Both 1 and 2 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.22 How many persons are there between Mehmood and Mubarake? 1. One 2. Two 3. Four 4. Three 5. Five Ans: 3 Q.23 If Mumtaz has interchanged his position with Mehjabi, who is second right of Mehjabi? 1. Muradabadi 2. Mumtaza 3. Mehmood 4. Mehjabi 5. None of these In Ans: 1 Q.24 Who is infront of Mehmood? 1. Mumtaza 2. Mumtaz 3. Muradabadi 4. Mubarake 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.25 Who is third to the left of Muradabadi? 1. Mumtaz 2. Mehjabi 3. Mubarake 4. Mumtaza 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.26 Shilpi is 13th to the left of Monika who is 16th from the right end of the row. Pankaj is second to the right of Monika. How may students are there in the row? 1. 36 2. 28 3. 25 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these Not Ans: 4 Q.27 H G B I G 1. > 2 + $ © 2. © 2 + $ > 3. > 2 8 $ © 4. © © © $ © 5. None of these In Ans: 4 Q.28 H A M R I 1. @ 6 + 1 $ 2. @ + 6 1 $ 3. $ @ + 6 1 4. 6 + @ 1 $ 5. None of these In Ans: 1 Q.29 D V X Z B 1. > 5 4 9 > 2. > 5 + 9 > 3. > + 5 9 > 4. < 5 + 9 > 5. None of these In Ans: 2 Q.30 N R A I K 1. > 1 6 $ > 2. > 6 1 $ > 3. > 1 6 $ < 4. > $ 1 6 > 5. None of these In Ans: 1 Q.31 In the expression K$M@R$D© H, how is R related to H ? 1. Sister 2. Sister-in-law 3. Mother 4. Niece 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.32 Which of the following expressions shows that Z is brother-in-law of S? 1. Z?K©N+X+S 2. K$Z+S+X+B 3. Z?K©N©U©S 4. Z?K+N©U©S 5. None of these Not Ans: 3 Q.33 In the expression F$M©Z©X, how is F related to X? 1. Sister 2. Sister-in-law 3. Mother 4. Niece 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.34 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters O, L, I, E, C, P using each letter only once in each word? 1. One 2. Three 3. Four 4. Two 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.35 In the number 502819634, digits are arranged in ascending order from left to right then how many digits will remain unchanged? 1. None 2. Two 3. One 4. Three 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.42 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 566.91 + 551.34 + 114.98 = ? 1. 1233.23 2. 1222.33 3. 1223.45 4. 1235.88 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.43 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 24×22 = ? ÷ 8 1. 4242 2. 4422 3. 4224 4. 4222 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.45 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 122 × 252 – 12234 = ? 1. 18150 2. 18510 3. 18520 4. 18501 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.46 The average age of Nitika and Kriti is 21 years. The ratio of their ages is 4:3 respectively. What is the present age of Kriti? 1. 18 years 2. 24 years 3. 26 years 4. 16 years 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.47 The side of square is two times of the radius of a circle. The area of square is 9604 cm2. What is the area of circle? 1. 7545 cm2 2. 7543 cm2 3. 7548 cm2 4. 7549 cm2 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.48 In how many different ways can the letters of the word BOUNTY be arranged? 1. 720 2. 120 3. 5040 4. 740 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.49 An amount has to be distributed among A, B, C and D in the ratio 4:6:11:13 respectively. If Cs share is Rs. 7854 then how much is the amount of B and D together? 1. Rs. 13566 2. Rs. 16928 3. Rs. 12784 4. Rs. 15676 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.50 A man walked at a speed of 4 km./hr. from point A to B and came back from point B to A at the speed of 6 km./hr. What would be the ratio between the time taken by man in walking from point A to B to point B to A respectively? 1. 1:2 2. 2:3 3. 2:1 4. 3:4 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.51 What amount a man would have received on a principal of Rs. 4000 after two years at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. on simple interest? 1. Rs. 4600 2. Rs. 4600 3. Rs. 4800 4. Rs. 4200 5. Rs. 4200 In Ans: 2 Q.52 An aeroplane is flying at an average speed of 756 km./hr. A helicopter takes 48 hours to cover the twice distance covered by the aeroplane in 9 hours. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 hours? 1. 5014 km. 2. 5140 km. 3. 5130 km. 4. 5103 km. 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.54 Rekha bought an article in Rs. 62000 and sold it at 25 percent loss. From this amount she bought another article and sold it at 30 percent profit. What is her total profit/loss? 1. Rs. 1560, loss 2. Rs. 1560, profit 3. Rs. 1550, loss 4. Rs. 1550, profit 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.55 Train A crosses a stationary train B in 45 seconds and crosses a pole in 20 seconds at the same speed. The length of train A is 200 meter. What is the length of stationary train B? 1. 350 meter 2. 250 meter 3. 300 meter 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these In Ans: 2 Q.56 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in following number-series? 3 732 1244 1587 1803 1928 ? 1. 2144 2. 1992 3. 1955 4. 2053 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.57 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in following number-series? 16 24 ? 210 945 5197.5 33783.75 1. 40 2. 36 3. 58 4. 60 5. None of these Not Ans: 4 Q.58 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in following number-series? 45030 9000 1795 355 68 ? 1.32 1. 11.6 2. 12.2 3. 10.4 4. 9.8 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.59 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in following number-series? 5 12 31 100 407 ? 12259 1. 2042 2. 2046 3. 2044 4. 2048 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.60 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in following number-series? 8 11 17 ? 65 165.5 498.5 1. 27.5 2. 32 3. 28 4. 30.5 5. None of these Not Ans: 4 Q.61 The questions given below contain two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question ? In a group of A, B, C, D and E, the average salary is Rs. 48250. What is the salary of C? (I) Salary of C is 1.5 times the salary of B. (II) The average salary of A and B is Rs. 23500. 1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient. 3. If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient. 4. If statement I and II together are not sufficient. 5. If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient. Ans: 4 Q.62 The questions given below contain two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question ? What is the percentage of earned profit by selling a car for Rs. 640000? (I) The amount of earned profit after selling the car is Rs. 3,20,000. (II) The selling price of car is double of cost price. 1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient. 3. If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient. 4. If statement I and II together are not sufficient. 5. If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient. Ans: 3 Q.63 The questions given below contain two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question ? What is rate of interest p.c.p.a.? (I) The simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 14350 is Rs. 11480 in 4 years. (II) On simple interest, the amount will be doubled in five years. 1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient. 3. If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient. 4. If statement I and II together are not sufficient. 5. If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient. In Ans: 3 Q.64 The questions given below contain two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question ? What is two digit number? (I) The difference between the two digits of number is 9. (II) The product of two digits of number is 0. 1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient. 3. If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient. 4. If statement I and II together are not sufficient. 5. If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient. In Ans: 1 Q.65 The questions given below contain two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question ? What is the perimeter of a rectangle? (I) The area of rectangle is 252 m2. (II) The ratio of length and breadth of rectangle is 9:7 respectively. 1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient. 3. If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient. 4. If statement I and II together are not sufficient. 5. If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient. Ans: 5 Q.66 Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below- A committee of 6 persons has to be formed from 4 teachers of Hindi, 5 teachers of Art and 3 teachers of Sanskrit. In how many different ways can the committee be formed, if - Two teachers are to be included from each stream. 1. 210 2. 180 3. 145 4. 96 5. None of these Not Ans: 2 Q.67 Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below- A committee of 6 persons has to be formed from 4 teachers of Hindi, 5 teachers of Art and 3 teachers of Sanskrit. In how many different ways can the committee be formed, if - No teachers are included from Sanskrit stream. 1. 81 2. 62 3. 46 4. 84 5. None of these Not Ans: 4 Q.68 Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below- A committee of 6 persons has to be formed from 4 teachers of Hindi, 5 teachers of Art and 3 teachers of Sanskrit. In how many different ways can the committee be formed, if - Any teacher can be included in committee. 1. 626 2. 718 3. 924 4. 844 5. None of these Not Ans: 3 Q.69 There are three taps in a water tank. The tank fills in 4 hours by opening tap A and 6 hours by opening tap B and by opening only tap C it empties in 3 hours. How much time will be required to fill the tank by opening all taps A, B and C simultaneously? 1. 10 hours 2. 8 hours 3. 18 hours 4. 12 hours 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.70 When a number is added to seven-ninth of thirty-five percent of 900, the resultant is 325. What is the number? 1. 60 2. 120 3. 90 4. 180 5. None of these Ans: 5 Q.71 If 2/9th of the teachers who teach Physics are female then the number of male teachers teaching Physics is approximately how much percent of total teachers teaching Chemistry? 1. 57 2. 42 3. 63 4. 69 5. 51 Not Ans: 1 Q.72 What is the total number of teachers teaching Chemistry, English and Biology? 1. 1226 2. 1116 3. 1176 4. 998 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.73 What is the respective ratio between the total number of teachers teaching English and Physics together to the number of teachers teaching Maths and Biology together? 1. 25:44 2. 33:34 3. 23:33 4. 44:25 5. 44:25 Not Ans: 4 Q.74 What is the difference between the total number of teachers teaching Physics and Hindi together and total number of teachers teaching English and Biology together? 1. 252 2. 350 3. 482 4. 352 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.75 The total area of a circle and a square is 2611 cm2. The diameter of circle 42 cm. What is the sum of circumference of circle and perimeter of square? 1. 272 cm. 2. 380 cm. 3. 280 cm. 4. Can not be determined 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.76 In the year 2008, approximately how many defaulters were there among the people who took loan from Bank S? 1. 6490 2. 6210 3. 5020 4. 6550 5. 5580 Not Ans: 2 Q.77 What was the approximate difference between the defaulters in Bank Q in year 2006 and year 2007? 1. 175 2. 125 3. 190 4. 205 5. 140 Not Ans: 1 Q.78 In which of the following years the number of defaulters in Bank R was maximum in the given years? 1. 2007 2. 2008 3. 2009 4. 2012 5. None of these Not Ans: 3 Q.79 In which of the following years was the difference between the number of defaulters of Bank P in comparision to previous year the maximum? 1. 2010 2. 2008 3. 2009 4. 2007 5. None of these Not Ans: 4 Q.80 What was the approximate total number of defaulters in Bank T in 2009 and 2010? 1. 14110 2. 13620 3. 13250 4. 14670 5. 15330 Not Ans: 3 Q.81 Which one of the following is not an electronic banking delivery channel? 1. Mobile Vans 2. Mobile Phone Banking 3. Internet Banking 4. Tele Banking 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.82 Recently Pakistan Cricket Board imposed a life ban on which Cricket Player? 1. Salman Butt 2. Danish Kaneria 3. Shoaib Malik 4. Shahid Afridi 5. None of these In Ans: 2 Q.83 Which of the following is a metal? 1. Chlorine 2. Zinc 3. Neon 4. Iodine 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.84 Consider the following statements : (A) Susan Rice has been appointed as the US National Security Advisor. (B) Susan Rice will replace Tom Donilon. (C) She is well known for advocating strong relationship with India. Which of the above is/are True? 1. A and B 2. Only B 3. B and C 4. Only A 5. All A, B and C Not Ans: 5 Q.85 Which of the following is the name of Indias space launching vehicle? 1. EDUSAT 2. Q-SAT 3. PSLV 4. KALPANA 5. KALPANA Ans: 3 Q.86 Who has been elected as President of Asian Athletic Association? 1. Dahlan Jumaan Al-Hamad 2. Suresh Kalmadi 3. Ajay Makar 4. Jeremy Hunt 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.87 Which of the following institutions is an asset reconstruction company? 1. CIBIL 2. DICGC 3. BCSBI 4. ARCIL 5. None of these Not Ans: 4 Q.88 Which of the following statements is/are false? (A) Indias first 800 MW pressurised water reactor at Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu has attained critically. (B) The turbine will start generating power meant for consumption in 40 days. (C) At first stage, the unit would produce only 50 percent of its capacity followed by 70 percent in the second stage and 90 percent in the third stage. 1. B and C 2. Only A 3. Only B 4. A and C 5. None of these In Ans: 2 Q.89 The rate of which the domestic currency can be converted into foreign currency and vice-versa is known as the- 1. Exchange rate 2. MIBOR 3. Inter Bank Call Money rate 4. Base rate 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.90 Which country will host 2016 ICC World T20 Cricket Cup Tournament? 1. Sri Lanka 2. India 3. Australia 4. Pakistan 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.91 Which of the following is a food crop? 1. Jute 2. Jatropha 3. Jowar 4. Cotton 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.92 Consider the following statements : (A) CAD touched a record high of 7.8 pc of GDP in 2012-13. (B) CAD is the difference between the outflow and inflow of foreign currency. (C) CAD was 4.4 percent in the March quarter of 2011-12. Which of the above statements is/are true? 1. A and B 2. Only B 3. B and C 4. Only A 5. All A, B and C In Ans: 3 Q.93 Which of the following categories of advance account is not an NPA? 1. Standard Account 2. Standard Account 3. Doubtful Account 4. Loss Account 5. 1 and 2 Not Ans: 1 Q.94 Sudhakar Bokade died in Mumbai. Who was he? 1. Actor 2. Playback singer 3. Music Director 4. Film Maker 5. Film Maker Not Ans: 4 Q.95 Which one of the following is a Credit Card Association? 1. India Card 2. Master Card 3. SBI Card 4. Citi Bank Card 5. None of these Not Ans: 2 Q.96 The International Day Against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is observed on - 1. June 22 2. June 24 3. June 26 4. June 28 5. June 28 In Ans: 3 Q.97 Who among the following is not a sports person? 1. Sania Mirza 2. Azim H. Premji 3. Leander Paes 4. Ricky Ponting 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.98 Which of the following countries signed an agreement to enhance co-operation on energy security? 1. India and Iran 2. India and Israel 3. India and Iraq 4. India and Indonesia 5. India and Indonesia Not Ans: 3 Q.99 Credit risk to the bank is high from which of these cards? 1. Debit Cards 2. Credit Cards 3. ATM Cards 4. Smart Cards 5. None of these In Ans: 2 Q.100 Who has been honoured with the 2013 Lifetime Achievement Award by the American Society of Civil Engineers Enviromental and Water Resources Institute? 1. Vijay Kumar 2. Manoj Kumar 3. Vijay Singh 4. Manoj Singh 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.101 Crossing on a cheque can be cancelled by the _________ of the cheque, under his full signature. 1. payee 2. drawee 3. endorser 4. holder 5. drawer In Ans: 5 Q.102 Who is the author of Summertime? 1. J. M. Coetzee 2. Adam Foulds 3. Simon Mawer 4. Sarah Waters 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.103 Which one of the following constitutes the largest percentage of retail loans in India? 1. Auto loans 2. Personal loans 3. Personal overdrafts 4. Consumer loans 5. Home loans Ans: 5 Q.104 Oil and Natural Gas Corp. and which other state run company have swept the annual Petrofed Oil and Gas Industry Awards for 2012? 1. NTPC 2. NHPC 3. GAIL India 4. SAIL India 5. None of these Ans: 3 Q.105 Depreciation of an asset occurs due to _____. 1. fire in the unit 2. theft 3. labour trouble 4. wear and tear 5. None of these In Ans: 4 Q.106 Recently which of the following countries has cancelled the construction of a USD six billion nuclear procession plant apparently due to public concerns over its safety? 1. Japan 2. South Korea 3. North Korea 4. China 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.107 Which of the following is not a source of funds of a commercial bank? 1. Capital 2. Borrowings from RBI 3. Call money borrowings 4. Deposits 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.108 Which of the following statements is/are false? 1. Pohang University of Science and Technology tops the list of the worlds Top 100 Young universities for the second consecutive year. 2. Hyderabad tops the financial intelligence index. 3. Two Indian origin women have been named in the list of Fifty Women to Watch Over 40 list. 4. Oprah Winfrey has claimed the number one spot on Forbes Magazines annual most powerful celebrities list. 5. 1 and 2 Not Ans: 3 Q.109 Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Award is given for excellence in the field of ________. 1. Literature 2. Music 3. Sports 4. Science and Technology 5. Social Service Not Ans: 4 Q.110 India has slipped to _______ position in terms of foreign money lying with the Swiss banks and accounts. 1. 20th 2. 50th 3. 70th 4. 80th 5. None of these Not Ans: 3 Q.111 What is Money Laundering? 1. Conversion of assets into cash 2. Conversion of money which is illegally obtained into legal 3. Conversion of cash into gold 4. Conversion of gold into cash 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.112 ________ old Nepali Manuscrips in the field of Ayurveda and Tantrism have been added to UNESCOs Memory of the World Register. 1. Two 2. Three 3. One 4. Five 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.113 Kabul is a town in ______. 1. Pakistan 2. Nepal 3. Bhutan 4. Afghanistan 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.114 India got the first of its ten Boeing Aircraft ordered from the United States. Its name is------- 1. Boeing C-17 Globemaster III 2. Boeing C-18 Globemaster III 3. Boeing F-17 Globemaster III 4. Boeing C-17 Globemaster II 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.115 ASBA means __________. 1. Allotment Supported by Blocked Amount 2. Application Supported by Blocked Amount 3. Application Supported by Bank Account 4. Allotment Supported by Bank Account 5. None of these Not Ans: 2 Q.116 Retail inflation inched up to ______ in June, from 9.31 percent in the previous month, on costlier vegetables and food items. 1. 10.87 percent 2. 11.87 percent 3. 9.87 percent 4. 12.87 percent 5. None of these In Ans: 3 Q.117 Which of the following is not the name of a game? 1. Billiards 2. Polo 3. Olympic 4. Wrestling 5. None of these In Ans: 3 Q.118 P.M. Manmohan Singh released a Postage stamp on renowned Kashmiri Peerzada Ghulam Ahmad Mehjoor. Who was he? 1. Singer 2. Writer 3. Politician 4. Poet 5. None of these Not Ans: 4 Q.119 Which of the following terms is used in the field of Economics? 1. Biosphere 2. Exchange rate 3. Equator 4. Harmonic Tremor 5. None of these Not Ans: 2 Q.120 Consider the following statements : (A) Rs. 650 crore penalty has been levied on Bharti Airtel for violating roaming norms in 13 service areas between 2004 and 2005. (B) The penalty was approved by the Telecom Minister A. K. Antony. (C) Bharti Airtel had continued to route national and international calls as local calls under a scheme till 2005 despite being told to stop it in 2003. Which of the above is/are true? 1. Only A 2. B and C 3. Only C 4. A and C 5. None of these Not Ans: 4 Q.121 In each of the following questions, two sentences (A) and (B) are given. Each sentence has blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer---- (A) The whole village was ________. (B) It was autumn and the trees were ________ with colour. 1. affected 2. silent 3. aflame 4. loaded 5. divided Ans: 3 Q.122 In each of the following questions, two sentences (A) and (B) are given. Each sentence has blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer---- (A) Attempts to restrict parking in the city centre have further ______ the problem of traffic congestion. (B) The treatment only _________ the condition. 1. solved 2. directed 3. brought 4. proclaimed 5. aggravated Ans: 5 Q.123 In each of the following questions, two sentences (A) and (B) are given. Each sentence has blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer---- (A) I don’t travel much by __________. (B) The interview with the President will ________ tomorrow morning. 1. train 2. air 3. foot 4. broadcast 5. telecast Ans: 2 Q.124 In each of the following questions, two sentences (A) and (B) are given. Each sentence has blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer---- (A) He left and I missed my _______ to say goodbye to him. (B) There’s a _________ of injury in almost any sport. 1. opportunity 2. vacation 3. chance 4. risk 5. likelihood Ans: 3 Q.125 In each of the following questions, two sentences (A) and (B) are given. Each sentence has blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer---- (A) They have _________ themselves as dedicated social workers. (B) I think grey hair on a man can look very _________. 1. distinguished 2. distinct 3. desirable 4. attractive 5. flourishing Ans: 1 Q.126 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. More than the multiple demands for Statehood in Assam, it is the insistence on closed, ethnically homogenous and exclusive units that gives cause for concern. All . 1. Statehood 2. insistence 3. ethnically 4. homogenous 5. All In Ans: 5 Q.127 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. Every time there is talk of extend the powers of an autonomous council, other communities,especially those who can never claim a council of their own, are quick to protest. All . 1. extend 2. autonomous 3. communities 4. claim 5. All Ans: 1 Q.128 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. On the government’s part, it would be more judicious to initiate dialogue with activists, rather than set them on a path of confruntation that might lead to more violence in the near future.All . 1. judicious 2. initiate 3. activists 4. confruntation 5. All . In Ans: 4 Q.129 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. The massive spread of electronic media and telicommunications throughout the country and the rapid urbanisation is underway. All . 1. electronic 2. telicommunications 3. urbanisation 4. underway 5. All . Ans: 2 Q.130 In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are ly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) All as your answer. Discrimination against and antagonism to Dalits is rampent in the Hindi and other language media. All . 1. Discrimination 2. antagonism 3. rampent 4. language 5. All Not Ans: 3 Q.131 Choose the option for (131) 1. environment 2. lungs 3. health 4. species 5. nation Ans: 3 Q.132 Choose the option for (132) 1. claimed 2. predicted 3. assume 4. produced 5. fostered In Ans: 1 Q.133 Choose the option for (133) 1. provision 2. risk 3. yield 4. rated 5. terror Ans: 2 Q.134 Choose the option for (134) 1. drank 2. ate 3. swallowed 4. maintain 5. produced Ans: 1 Q.135 Choose the option for (135) 1. child 2. parents 3. people 4. ages 5. girls Ans: 3 Q.136 Choose the option for (136) 1. low 2. large 3. variety 4. free 5. heavy In Ans: 5 Q.137 Choose the option for (137) 1. affect 2. effect 3. end 4. issuance 5. start Ans: 2 Q.138 Choose the option for (138) 1. aged 2. skilled 3. valued 4. created 5. ranged Ans: 1 Q.139 Choose the option for (139) 1. trapping 2. tempting 3. liquidating 4. manipulating 5. assessing Not Ans: 5 Q.140 Choose the option for (140) 1. loop 2. division 3. petition 4. analysis 5. scrutiny In Ans: 4 Q.141 Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in context of the ? 1. In several parts of the country agriculture is still a seasonal occupation. 2. The institutional finance is always availed by small farmers only. 3. According to the , there is only one to the problems of all the farmers. 4. The farmer’s suicides is a minor issue which could be dealt with some important measure by the government. 5. All of the above Not Ans: 1 Q.142 What is the author’s main objective in writing the ? 1. Criticizing the policy of providing relief packages to the family of farmers who commit suicide 2. To appeal to the non-institutional moneylenders for providing loans to farmers in a hassle free manner 3. To applaud the dauntless spirit of the farmers. 4. None of the above 5. All of the above Not Ans: 4 Q.143 What reasons has the author mentioned for farmer’s suicide in the ? (A) Farmers are at the mercy of nature. (B) The minimum purchase price of government do not reach the poorest fo farmers in reality. (C) The farmers’ margin of profit has been narrowing in the recent years. 1. Only A 2. Only B 3. Only A and B 4. Only B and C 5. All A, B and C Not Ans: 5 Q.144 Why do farmers’ deliberately commit suicide according to the ? 1. So that the profits from the crop could be distributed amongst their family. 2. So that the farmers is rescued from the debts. 3. So that the farmers’ family members could avail the benefits announced by the government. 4. So that they do not have to work when they derive no financial assistance out of it. 5. All of the above Not Ans: 3 Q.145 What does the author mean by “procedures” when he says that ‘farmers do not get chance of availing institutional finance because of procedures involved in it’? 1. He refers to the government guidelines of disbursing finance only to medium and large land owners. 2. Refers to the strict government rule of providing loans to only such farmers who can guarantee a default free tenure 3. The formalities to avail these facilities are enormous and too difficult for an ordinary farmer to understand. 4. Refers to the danger the farmers must face from the local moneylenders if they availed the loan from government instead 5. Refers to only the small farmers who are getting loans from the government free of cost. Not Ans: 3 Q.146 Which of the following statements is FALSE in context of the ? 1. Many farmers struggle to sustain themselves after reaping one crop in a year. 2. The government has relieved the farmers from any elaborate formalities while availing loans 3. India was made self-sufficient in food production because of green revolution. 4. Some farmers commit suicide in order to avail relief package from the government. 5. All except 2 Not Ans: 2 Q.147 What measures has the author suggested to help farmers and prevent them from taking extreme measures? (A) To improve the entire structure of loans given to the farmers. (B) The farmers are taught to deal with difficulties through their own talents and skills. (C) Farmers to be given amount to pay for their agricultural inputs so that the profit margin for them is good. 1. Only A 2. Only A and B 3. Only B 4. Only B and C 5. Only C Not Ans: 2 Q.148 Choose the word similar to the word ‘bright’ as used in the . 1. Glowing 2. Dazzling 3. Dull 4. Radiant 5. Promising Not Ans: 5 Q.149 Choose the word opposite to the word ‘superficial’ as used in the . 1. Careless 2. Profound 3. Extreme 4. Articulate 5. Fatal Not Ans: 2 Q.150 What are the adversities faced by the Indian farmers according to the ? 1. Lack of adequate irrigation facilities 2. Ownership of only a small piece of land by a majority of farmers, which fails to generate any profit 3. Lack of financial help to the farmers 4. All of the above 5. None of the above Not Ans: 4 Q.151 Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? 1. B 2. C 3. F 4. A 5. E Not Ans: 3 Q.152 Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? 1. B 2. C 3. F 4. A 5. E Not Ans: 2 Q.153 Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? 1. D 2. C 3. F 4. A 5. E Not Ans: 1 Q.154 Which of the following will be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement? 1. B 2. C 3. F 4. A 5. E Not Ans: 4 Q.155 Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? 1. B 2. C 3. F 4. A 5. E Not Ans: 5 Q.156 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). Anybody who thinks (1)/ that the growth of English (2)/ has been a bane for India (3)/ is seriously out of touch with reality. (4)/ No error (5). 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Not Ans: 5 Q.157 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). English represents, for (1)/ most Indians, the language (2)/ of opportune, while their (3)/ mother tongues are often the language of expression. (4)/ No error (5). 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Not Ans: 3 Q.158 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). The negative approach to (1)/ the state government for (2)/ any progressive project will (3)/ shatter the economy in the long run. (4)/ No error (5). 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Not Ans: 1 Q.159 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). When we Indians are (1)/ driving, we are in such (2)/ a tearing hurry to get to our (3)/ destination that we ignore all traffic rules (4)/. No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Not Ans: 5 Q.160 Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5). All groups, regardless (1)/ with their immediate differences (2)/, have an equal stake in (3)/ bringing about prosperity (4)/. No error (5) 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Not Ans: 2 Q.161 Which of the following is not a field type in Access? 1. Byte 2. Integer 3. Single 4. Double 5. None of these In Ans: 5 Q.162 Which of the following is the primary memory? 1. RAM 2. HDD 3. Flash 4. All of the above 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.163 Which of the following is not a type of printer? 1. Dot Matrix 2. Laser 3. Desk-jet 4. Bubble jet 5. None of these In Ans: 3 Q.164 Each machine require a separate ______ for each high level language. 1. Operating System 2. Kernel 3. Peripheral 4. Compiler 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.165 A DVD RAM is similar to a ________, except it has capacity up to 5.2 GB. 1. CD-R 2. Floppy disk 3. CD-RW 4. Hard disk 5. None of these In Ans: 3 Q.166 All of the following are basic principles of networks, except - 1. Each computer must have network card 2. There must be communication media connecting the network hardware device. 3. There must be atleast one connecting device. 4. Each computer must have software that support the movement of information. 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.167 Which of the following is a valid IP address? 1. 123.456.789.012 2. 12.34.56.78 3. 255.0.1 4. 169.174.190 5. None of these In Ans: 2 Q.168 ________ are used to identify a user who returns to a website. 1. Cookies 2. Plug-in 3. Scripts 4. ASPs 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.169 If you want to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use? 1. ARP 2. RARP 3. ICMP 4. PING 5. PONG Not Ans: 1 Q.170 The term hypertext means - 1. Non-sequencial writing 2. Hypermedia 3. Blinking text 4. Text with heavy formatting 5. None of these In Ans: 2 Q.171 In networking terminology UTP stands for - 1. Unshielded Twisted Pair 2. Unshielded Twisted Pair 3. Uniformly Terminating Port 4. Unshielded T- Port 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.172 Relational database environment has all of the following components except ________. 1. Users 2. Separate files 3. Database 4. Database administrator 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.173 Primary key - 1. It denotes a candidate key that is chosen by the database designer as the principal mean of identifying entities within an entity set 2. Attributes names of all primary key are unique 3. Primary key specification is optional and good idea to specify primary key for each relation 4. All of the above 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.174 Which of the following best describes XML documents? 1. These are used exclusively for webpages. 2. These use the same syntax as ASPX files. 3. These contain structured textual data. 4. These are saved in a binary format. 5. None of these In Ans: 3 Q.175 What type of a device can be reimaged? 1. Motherboard 2. Hard Disk 3. RAM 4. Video Card 5. None of these In Ans: 2 Q.176 How many table views are available in MS Access? 1. 3 2. 7 3. 2 4. 1 5. None of these Not Ans: 3 Q.177 Which of the following is a specially designed computer that perform complex calculation quickly? 1. Servers 2. Super computer 3. Laptops 4. Mainframes 5. PDA In Ans: 2 Q.178 Which view of powerpoint is mainly used for editing text of slides? 1. Normal 2. Outline 3. Notes Page 4. Slide Sorter 5. None of these In Ans: 2 Q.179 DSL is an example of a _________ connection. 1. Network 2. Wireless 3. Slow 4. Broadband 5. Narrowband Ans: 4 Q.180 Text fields can contain up to ______ characters. 1. 16 2. 32,767 3. 3,227 4. 256 5. 255 In Ans: 5 Q.181 The binary language consist of _______ digits(s). 1. 8 2. 1 3. 2 4. 1000 5. 1024 Ans: 3 Q.182 Which view of powerpoint is mainly used for rearranging slides? 1. Normal 2. Outline 3. Notes Page 4. Slide Sorter 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.183 _________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat. 1. Servers 2. Real Time System 3. Embedded System 4. Robotic Computer 5. Mainframes Ans: 3 Q.184 Which property identifies a record uniquely in a table? 1. Default value 2. Primary key 3. Indexed 4. Required 5. Validated Not Ans: 2 Q.185 Steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called ___________. 1. Instructions 2. Operating System 3. Application Software 4. System Unit 5. Data In Ans: 1 Q.186 If you magnify a ________ you can see its individual pixels. 1. Vector graphic 2. Bitmap 3. DXF 4. EMF 5. Both 1 and 2 In Ans: 2 Q.187 Paint programs keep track of every _______ placed on the screen. 1. image 2. object 3. pixel 4. color 5. dot Ans: 3 Q.188 Which of the following is not a computer package? 1. LOTUS 2. LOTUS 3. CAD 4. DBASE 5. None of these Not Ans: 2 Q.189 POST stands for- 1. Power Operated Source Tablet 2. Power On Self Test 3. Power Operated Service Tax 4. Power Of Self Test 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.190 Find the odd term out. 1. MS DOS 2. Java 3. UNIX 4. Windows-95 5. Windows-98 Ans: 2 Q.191 Buffering is used for- 1. Memory management 2. I/O management 3. Processor management 4. File management 5. None of these Not Ans: 2 Q.192 Video Conferencing means- 1. Sitting together and seeing video film 2. A conference organized in TV studio 3. Seeing the conference on television 4. Sitting at distance and conferencing with the help of computer network 5. None of these Ans: 4 Q.193 Transformation of input into output is performed by - 1. Peripherals 2. Memory 3. Storage 4. CPU 5. BUS In Ans: 4 Q.194 How many bytes are there in 1011100101101110 number? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 8 Not Ans: 2 Q.195 Which type of errors is flagged by compilers? 1. Run-time errors 2. Logical errors 3. Syntax errors 4. Both 2 and 3 5. None of these Not Ans: 3 Q.196 Bug means - 1. logical error in program 2. difficult syntax error in program 3. documenting programs using an efficient documentation tool 4. Both 1 and 3 5. None of these Ans: 1 Q.197 Primary key indexing technique does not allow - 1. Duplicate data in a field 2. Many to many relations 3. Multiple attributes 4. Set of relations 5. None of these Not Ans: 1 Q.198 A ready to run machine language program is produced by a/an - 1. Interpreter 2. Loader 3. Assembler 4. All of the above 5. None of these Not Ans: 2 Q.199 Programme used to login to other computer system to obtain information and run program is- 1. TIMEOUT 2. TELNET 3. SNMP 4. SMTP 5. None of these Ans: 2 Q.200 ________ is a software that may be used, modified and distributed freely. 1. Shareware 2. Public domain 3. Copyright 4. Piracy 5. None of these In Ans: 2
Posted on: Mon, 21 Oct 2013 02:18:01 +0000
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