Question I have never heard asked before regarding tongues -- and their continuance today. IF the normative is for tongues to be continued, and a continual usage matter throughout all ages, THEN where is the evidence in scripture that the apostles actually continued using them? What I mean is this --- Acts 2, 8, 10 & 19 are pointed to as passages regarding the theology of tongues (if you will). Added to that is Romans 8:28-29 and 1 Corinthians 12-14. In Acts 2 You have all the apostles. In Acts 8 you have Peter & John (though it must be stated that the USE of Tongues is nowhere in the passage). In Acts 10 you only have Peter. In Acts 19, you have only Paul (who wasnt even with the original apostles when the Spirit fell). In all of this you see a decreasing figure, not an increasing one. Sooooo.... if tongues were the normative --- then why were there not more examples with increasing numbers -->> AND
Posted on: Sat, 23 Aug 2014 07:28:36 +0000
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