Question: In most Biblical commentaries the vast majority of theologians insist the coming of the Son of Man in Mat. 24:30-31 is the same event as the appearing of the Word of God in Rev. 19:11-21. Is this true? Like Noah and Lot, the Son of Man must gather His elect (Mat. 24:30-31; 16:27) BEFORE pouring out of His wrath on the wicked! (V37-39) The Word of God (Rev. 19:11-21) will cast the beast and false prophet into the Lake of Fire AFTER the wrath is completed! (Rev. 15:1; 16:17) How can these events be the same, the Son of Man (Jesus) comes before the wrath; the Word of God (Jesus) comes after the wrath is over? They aren’t!
Posted on: Tue, 19 Aug 2014 00:29:51 +0000
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