Reading this website, scholarscorner/content/justified-faith-jesus-christ-not-ours, some questions came to mind. Concerning Rom. 3:22 Even the righteousness of God which is by *faith of Jesus Christ* unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: (KJV), the author of the article, Jefferis Kent Peterson, says: In Greek, the *faith of Jesus Christ* is also a subjective genitive, but has been interpreted as an objective in almost every translation. Question 1) Is he correct, that only KJV got this right, and NKJV, NASB, ESV etc. all got it wrong, because they translate it through faith in Jesus Christ? Question 2) The manuscript says: ... διὰ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ... Is he correct, that this a subjective genitive? According to my Lexham Syntactic Greek New Testament Glossary, it is a qualitative genitive. Others argue along the same line, quoting: Gal. 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the *faith of Jesus Christ*, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the *faith of Christ*, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified. Gal. 2:20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the *faith of the Son of God*, who loved me, and gave himself for me. Habakkuk 2:4 Behold, khis soul which mis lifted up is not upright in him: But the just shall live by *his faith*. Question 3) What is the correct translation? Faith of Jesus that saves us, or faith in Jesus that saves us?
Posted on: Thu, 22 May 2014 17:59:59 +0000
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