So the fragment is proved to be old enough and coeval with others of the 1st century CE. I think there are other clues in the canonical gospels that are compelling as well. Magdalene does not refer to a place this Mary was from because it didnt exist until 200 years after the early 1st century CE as a holy relic tourist trap to post-hoc confirm Mary Magdalene. So to what does Magdalene refer? There are no Greek correlates. There no Aramaic correlates. It has no meaning in Hebrew or as a place name at the time when Mary and Jesus lived. If you remove the ad-hoc locator postfix something interesting happens. You get Magdal. Since there are no written vowels in Hebrew this would be written Mgdl. There is a Hebrew meaning for Mgdl. It means tower. When used associated with a proper name it is an honorific referring to a person of great repute in the community. So Mary The Tower would be an important and well-respected person. Take your pick. The Catholic Churchs diminution of Mary Mgdl as a hooker with heart of gold? Or the Judaic communitys honorific for Mary Mgdl the wife of Jesus. I know what I think it is. Decide for yourself. scientificamerican/article/gospel-of-jesuss-wife-shown-to-be-authentic-in-tests/
Posted on: Sun, 13 Apr 2014 13:29:00 +0000
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