TIME for REALITY CHECK AND SOME REAL EDUCTION. I Swear I Need to Start a REAL Info TV Station!!! Thx for Listening. Prior to 1917...NO ONE was referred to as Palestinian. NO ONE...Understand? More STUDYING less yacking respectfully please. From 1917 until 1948...Palestinian could be used for ANYONE who resided in the British Mandate territory..(the British and Colonization...NOT THE USA...got talk to the BRITISH!) but was primarily used for Palestinian Jews. The Druze were mostly known as Druze..Bedouin as Bedouin...and the Arab residents chiefly by their village or clan. After the creation of a Jewish-majority state in 48, and the annexation of the land WHICH HOULD HAVE BEEN a second Arab-majority state by Egypt..Jordan and Syria..the term Palestinian fell into disuse politically. Once the neighboring Arab countries lost that territory to Israel in the 67 war..it become politically useful to act as if there had been a long-standing Palestinian culture..one that was Arab. (which basically is was) So the answer to ALL my great FB friends is that question depends on which year youre referring to. The name Palestine was imposed by the ROMANS on JUDEA in hopes of obliterating Jewish identity. (the ROMANS people....LIKE where ITALY is) It comes from the name of a very ancient enemy..the Philistines..who were Aegean...(area around Greece). AND we wonder Why? There are problems....sheeesh.
Posted on: Wed, 24 Sep 2014 22:59:15 +0000
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