Was listening to the Dividing Line while studying Codex Siniaticus....and a Muslim messages me saying John 1 originally is the word is a god and didnt appear in our earliest Manuscripts My Response: says every Muslim with no Proof ever. Sir please dont misquote John 1 i know the grammatical Formula of the Greek specifically John 1.. Verse 3 kai Theos en ho Logos =and God was the word is the word for word translation. There is no definite Article for two reasons, 1) because of the clause that is the two articles Theos and Ho are nominitive articlss that are preceded by the noun which is predicate...keep in line of the whole context and youll realise the constant theme is the Logos. 2)Theos is placed first for emphasis because of the word order in Greek. Therefore it is better rendered as and the was God. Btw all of our primitive manuscripts contain John 1. P52 is the earliest fragment of John dating arouns 95AD-130AD but P75 and P66 both contain john 1 in the exact form as it is today and they are our second earliest Manuscripts for Johns gospel. This proves your argument has no weight in fact it has no oxygen He responded im not convinced
Posted on: Sun, 27 Oct 2013 11:25:12 +0000
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