What does the Grace of God mean in Ephesians 2:8-9 For BY GRACE ARE YE SAVED THROUGH FAITH; and that NOT OF YOURSELVES: IT IS THE GIFT OF GOD: 9 NOT OF WORKS ( PLURAL) , LEST ANY MAN SHOULD BOAST. Well lets take a look. The concept of grace is unknown among the pagan gods, idols, cults and false religions invented by man. All those who practice these false religions to some degree are seeking to merit or earn the right to heaven. However, true biblical Christianity is in a class all by itself because salvation is received by FAITH based on solely the GRACE of God. Sadly, even among the Christian religions there are those who do not understand Gods grace, Christs atoning work or biblical salvation. These misguided churches TEACH A FALSE SALVATION, based on adding mens good works, church membership, baptism, and a host of other religious acts to biblical grace. They teach that man is saved by Gods grace plus the added righteous works of man. Their assumption is that they can somehow work for their salvation degrades the Christs suffering and death on the cross for the sins of mankind. However the Word of God explains in Romans 5:12-21 that death came upon all men because of the sin of Adam. Further God says, For if through the offense of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many (Rom. 5:15). Nowhere in this passage or anywhere else in the Bible does God say a man can in any way justify himself. The atoning for sin was the sole work of Jesus Christ, the Son of God who was without sin. The Bible says: Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.(Acts 4:21) It is solely Jesus Christ who atoned for sin and no man can offer his own righteousness for his sins, because all men are born sinners and under the condemnation of sin. This erroneous doctrine of grace plus works is not Gods plan of salvation, and therefore damns those that believe it to the devils hell. What then is Grace? The dictionary defines Grace as...disposition to grant something freely the condition or fact of giving favor. In theology it means the unmerited love and favor of God towards man. Further the word refers to the divine influence of God to change a sinful man and make him pure and justify him before a holy and righteous God. Thus grace by its definition and nature is something which is freely given to man by His Creator in which there is no requirements is set other than to freely receive it. Heaven is not earned....nor deserved, but offered as the free gift of God. If a Father was to say to his son, son I will give you $10 a week if you will cut the grass, this is not grace because requires work on the part of the son. The reward in this case must be earned in order to be received. If the father says, son you have really been doing good in school and helping you mother, so I am going to give you $10 to spend as you will, again this is not an example of Grace? This is a merited gift. However, if a father sees his son in need because of his love for the son meets the need, has regardless of whether the son has be good or bad, then the father has extended grace. The father gave without regard to his merit to receive it. But the $10 will not benefit the son, unless he takes it from the father when it is offered. False and unbiblical religions know nothing of Gods GRACE! Is it Grace if I tell you that if you a good moral person, go join a church, tithe, and do certain rites, such as baptism, Lords supper, confession, religious works, practice self denial and etc that God will extend Grace to you? Is this GRACE? The answer is a resounding no because by the very biblical definition of Grace it is not grace when there is a condition or requirement attached other than freely receiving it. LETS LOOK AT THE BIBLE AND SEE WHAT GOD DEFINES GRACE AND WHAT IT MEANS TO US. I. SAVING GRACE IS THE GIFT OF GOD. Eph. 2:8-9 A. Greek is a more precise language that is English! English is more versatile but is not as precise. I do not wish to bore you, but will you bear with me a moment and let me explain the grammatics of this verse in the original language. 1. Grace in this verse is in the instrumentive case. Let me give you a simple example: Take the sentence, A man teaches with words. With words, would be in the instrumentive case which expresses the means by which the teaching is imparted...which is by words! Faith in Ephesians 2:8 is in the Genitive or Ablative which is a different case and gives a description, shows separation, or makes a distinction. The word saved is a perfect tense participle in the passive voice which receives the action of the subject.....which is grace. An example: The boy was hit by the ball, the subject boy receives the action. It was the boy whom the ball hit. The word gift in Ephesians 2:8 is in the nominative case which means the offering of grace. This means that grace is offered and received as a gift. Note also that Romans 5:15 also explains this truth and adds that grace is a free gift, But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. (Romans 5:15) 2. Thus from the Greek language we see that the subject of the verse is grace. Because they are both in the nominative case it means that Grace and the gift are the same. In the grammatics of the verse faith is Genitive or Ablative, which sets the means or way of receiving grace. The statement is saying it is only by faith that the gift of Grace is received. The verse says that one is saved through faith, which is a preposition denoting the channel of the action. It is by faith that the gift of grace is received. 3. Verse 9, restates and clarifies the meaning of verse 8, in concluding salvation cannot come from working or meriting grace...which is salvation! B. Romans 5:8. For God commended his love towards us in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us Thus Christs love or Grace to us was given to us in a state of rebellion and sin and thus teaching we were completely undeserving of his favor to us. If salvation were received based on our earning or meriting salvation the Bible would say something like, While we were yet working and being faithful, and deserving and being worthy of Gods grace a man is saved. BUT THAT IS NOT WHAT IT SAYS DOES IT? It says while we were sinning against Him, totally in rejection of Him, rebelling against Him, totally undeserving, He died in our place for our sins. Great is the Love of God for the sinner! C. Romans 4:5. But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. Note again, salvation is not according to our works, but according to Gods own purpose he saves. II. BIBLICAL GRACE JUSTIFIES THE PERSON WHO ACCEPTS IT BY FAITH. Titus 3:3-7 A. Note Verse 3 says we were sometimes foolish, disobedient, deceived, serving divers lusts and pleasures, living in malice and envy, hateful, and hating one another. This certainly is not a picture of person who is living a virtuous life which deserves salvation. To the contrary the Bible say while we were foolish, and grossly sinful.....not faithful nor deserving of Gods mercy. 1. Thank God for the but in Verse 4. But after that the kindness.... Question: Clearly Paul is addressing people who have been saved and referring to their status before their salvation. Why would the Lord have to show kindness to them if they had been worthy to be saved. If that were true, the verse instead would have to say And God recognizing our worthiness gave us our just reward. But again....that is not what God says here are anywhere else. 2. Verse 4 speaks of the saving act of Grace, which is received not by our righteousness, but how? According to his mercy, or Grace. 3. Verse 5, emphatically states, Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy. There cannot be any mistake about the meaning of this verse. God says that salvation is not giving by works of righteous we have done, buy according to his mercy. The question is this, if salvation is earned by church membership, baptism, taking communion, doing good works....why the need of mercy? If a man is earning his salvation by doing the best he can....why the need for God to be merciful? The answer is obvious: Man is not worthy to receive Gods Grace....but our loving God and Savior offers it freely to those who will believe and receive it. B. A sinner an must have the means of being justfied, and freed from his sin. John 3:18 says, He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. 1. John 3:36 states, He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him. 2.Only the condemned need to be pardoned and receive Grace. God loves the sinner and offers grace and it when it received takes away ones sin and God Himself through Christ Jesus declares us righteous, and without the penalty of sin. It is totally the work of God offering us His unmerited favor. 3. Romans 3:23-25. Note the verse says all are sinners. This establishes our need to be justified. a. Verse 25. Uses the word propitiation which means to have ones debt fully paid. The offending debt is appeased, it is removed, taken out of the way and satisfied. b. Note that the means of receiving propitiation is FAITH which is the same truth that is stated in Ephesians 2:8. Christ Himself, through his dying on the cross, shedding His righteous and innocent blood, paid our sin debt that we could not pay. 1 John. 2:2, Says on the Cross every sin ever committed by man was paid for in full. And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. God use of the word propitiation is an emphatic statement that man cannot earn Gods grace or salvation. The word means full payment. Christ is the full payment, not partial payment added to and completed by our good works. c. Thus mans sin is removed totally by Christ based solely on His payment for our sins. God then imparts unmerited righteousness to the believer, when he by simple faith, believes this Bible and trusts God. Conclusion: God purpose is stated in Ephesians 2:7, That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his Grace in kindness towards us through Christ Jesus. 1. How wonderful is the Grace of God, that would save a sinner, and give him eternal life and heaven.....and require only that man simply take what God is offering.... 2. Romans 3:30 says, Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision (Jews) and the uncircumcision (Us!) through Faith 3. Christ came to Earth, God incarnate in Man, to save man and give him victory over death and to give eternal life in the very presence of God. 4. He our creator only says trust me, believe on me, take my free unmerited gift of salvation...and be saved today. 5. Rom. 10:9-10, If thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and believe in thine heart that God raised Him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.
Posted on: Thu, 27 Mar 2014 20:15:10 +0000
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