When 2Cor4:4 refers to the Devil as “ho theos tou aionos toutou,” clearly the reference is not to God. The expression ho theos(God or the G/god) is qualified by a genitive phrase tou ainonos toutou, of this world/age/system. Hence it is not a title but rather explains the position occupied by the Devil in relation to this world, namely, that he is its god. Similarly, Jn20v.28 has ho theos followed by a genetive, in this case(mou, of me, or my). Therefore it is not a title, but rather shows the position occupied by the one addressed in relation to Thomas, i.e. he was God(or a god) to Thomas. The presence of the definite article (ho) before theos in Jn20v.28 need not be taken as proof that Jesus is God(ho theos). Scholars generally recognize that Koine Greek can use an articular noun in the nominative case instead of a vocative. This is done paticularly under the influence of the Hebrew language, which employs a similar form of address. Daniel Wallace, who is a conservative Greek Scholar, classified Jn20v.28 as nominative-for-vocative, “most likely due to Semitic influence.” Hence the fact that the expression ho theos is used by Thomas in Jn20v.28 does not prove that Jesus is Jehovah. Noted trinitarian NT scholar and Church historian Dr. Rober M. Grant not only admits that grammatically, contextually, and historically Jesus could have been called “a god” by Thomas at Jn20v.28 but he believes that this scripture actually does say that Thomas called Jesus “a god.”-p. 171, Greek Apologists of the Second Century, The Westminster Press, 1988
Posted on: Thu, 18 Jul 2013 09:03:25 +0000
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