Date revised: November 19, 2013 The following sample exam for Private Pilot-Airplane (PAR) is suitable study material for the Private Pilot-Airplane Rating. These questions are a representation of questions that can be found on all Private Pilot-Airplane Rating tests. The applicant must realize that these questions are to be used as a study guide, and are not necessarily actual test questions. The full PAR test contains 60 questions. The Application Identification, Information Verification and Authorization Requirements Matrix lists all FAA exams. It is available at: faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/testing_matrix.pdf The FAA testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test questions. FAA-CT-8080-2, Computer Testing Supplement for Recreational Pilot and Private Pilot is available at: faa.gov/training_testing/testing/test_questions/media/FAA-CT-8080-2E.pdf The Learning Statement Reference Guide for Airman Knowledge Testing contains listings of learning statements with their associated codes. Matching the learning statement codes with the codes listed on your Airman Knowledge Test Report assists in the evaluation of knowledge areas missed on your exam. It is available at: faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/LearningStatementReferenceGuide.pdf SAMPLE PAR EXAM: 1. PLT025 Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s principle? A) For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. B) An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward. C) Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface. 2. PLT008 (Refer to figure 39.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude 5,000 ft Headwind 8 kts Temperature 41 °F Runway Hard surface A) 837 feet. B) 956 feet. C) 1,076 feet. 3. PLT008 (Refer to figure 39.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude 5,000 ft Headwind Calm Temperature 101 °F A) 445 feet. B) 545 feet. C) 495 feet. 4. PLT012 (Refer to figure 36.) Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with 65 percent maximum continuous power at 9,500 feet with a temperature of 36 °F below standard? A) 178 MPH. B) 181 MPH. C) 183 MPH. 5. PLT124 (Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 35 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL? A) 1,000-foot increase. B) 1,100-foot decrease. C) 1,300-foot increase. 6. PLT278 (Refer to figure 36.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36 °F higher than standard. A) 19.8 inches Hg. B) 20.8 inches Hg. C) 21.0 inches Hg. 7. PLT402 When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on A) 118.0 and 118.8 MHz. B) 121.5 and 243.0 MHz. C) 123.0 and 119.0 MHz. 8. PLT497 Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code? A) 1200. B) 7600. C) 7700. 9. PLT473 What is one purpose of wing flaps? A) To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed. B) To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls. C) To decrease wing area to vary the lift. 10. PLT088 (Refer to figure 4.) What is the caution range of the airplane? A) 0 to 60 MPH. B) 100 to 165 MPH. C) 165 to 208 MPH. 11. PLT088 (Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range? A) The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc. B) The green arc. C) The white arc. 12. PLT088 (Refer to figure 4.) Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed? A) Upper limit of the green arc. B) Upper limit of the white arc. C) The red radial line. 13. PLT088 (Refer to figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane? A) 60 to 100 MPH. B) 60 to 208 MPH. C) 65 to 165 MPH. 14. PLT215 Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by A) northerly turning error. B) certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft. C) the difference in location of true north and magnetic north. 15. PLT497 When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code? A) 7200. B) 4000. C) 7500. 16. PLT147 (Refer to figure 48.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is A) above the glide slope. B) below the glide slope. C) on the glide slope. 17. PLT332 A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by A) slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud. B) breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation. C) increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation. 18. PLT497 When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code A) 7200. B) 7400. C) 7600. 19. PLT147 A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a A) pulsating white light. B) steady white light. C) pulsating red light. 20. PLT141 (See Figure 65.) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane? A) A. B) C. C) E. 21. PLT077 (Refer to figure 49.) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for A) landing. B) taxiing and takeoff. C) taxiing and landing. 22. PLT161 The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally A) 10 NM. B) 20 NM. C) 30 NM. 23. PLT119 The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating A) in Class B airspace. B) in conditions of reduced visibility. C) within 5 miles of a controlled airport. 24. PLT208 When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed A) increase the chances of shock cooling the engine. B) assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare. C) nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot. 25. PLT444 Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of A) all passengers. B) the pilot. C) a crewmember. 26. PLT103 What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as Impulsivity? A) Do it quickly to get it over with. B) It could happen to me. C) Not so fast, think first. 27. PLT011 A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice? A) Takeoff to the west because the headwind will give the extra climb-out time needed. B) Try a takeoff without the passengers to make sure the climb is adequate. C) Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance. 28. PLT012 How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots? A) 14.25 NM. B) 15.00 NM. C) 14.50 NM. 29. PLT101 (Refer to figure 26, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a A) VOR. B) VORTAC. C) VOR/DME. 30. PLT078 (Refer to figure 53.) Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city? A) Northeast approximately 3 miles. B) Northwest approximately 1 mile. C) East approximately 10 miles. 31. PLT064 (Refer to figure 27, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are A) 1 mile and clear of clouds. B) 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C) 3 miles and clear of clouds. 32. PLT455 (Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight? A) The actual time enroute expressed in hours and minutes. B) The estimated time in enroute expressed in hours and minutes. C) The total amount of usable fuel onboard expressed in hours and minutes. 33. PLT078 (Refer to figure 53.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation? A) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz. B) Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories. C) Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz. 34. PLT078 (Refer to figure 53.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with A) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz. B) Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz. C) Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz. 35. PLT334 A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as A) spatial disorientation. B) hyperventilation. C) hypoxia. 36. PLT300 When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read A) 180° FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT. B) 0° TO or 180° FROM, regardless of the pilots position from the VOT. C) 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilots position from the VOT. 37. PLT064 (Refer to figure 21, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace? A) Class C. B) Class E. C) Class G. 38. PLT323 What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)? A) Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs. B) All Current NOTAMs. C) Current Airport/Facility Directory information and FDC NOTAMs. 39. PLT147 The destination airport has one runway, 08-26, and the wind is calm. The normal approach in calm wind is a left hand pattern to runway 08. There is no other traffic at the airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles west is beginning its mature stage, and rain is starting to reach the ground. The pilot decides to A) fly the pattern to runway 08 since the storm is too far away to affect the wind at the airport. B) fly the normal pattern to runway 08 since the storm is west and moving north and any unexpected wind will be from the east or southeast toward the storm. C) fly an approach to runway 26 since any unexpected wind due to the storm will be westerly. 40. PLT371 With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft? A) Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon. B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. C) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea. 41. PLT162 The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is A) 4 nautical miles. B) 6 nautical miles. C) 8 nautical miles. 42. PLT369 In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited? A) Class E airspace not designated for Federal Airways above 1,500 feet AGL. B) Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL. C) Class G airspace above 1,500 feet AGL. 43. PLT163 During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is A) 1 mile. B) 3 miles. C) 5 miles. 44. PLT163 During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is A) 500 feet. B) 1,000 feet. C) 1,500 feet. 45. PLT141 A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to A) taxi at a faster speed. B) taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways. C) return to the starting point on the airport. 46. PLT274 To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the A) Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories. B) Weather Depiction Chart. C) Area Forecast. 47. PLT081 (Refer to figure 16.) What sky condition and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z? A) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility. B) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 nautical miles visibility. C) Ceiling 100 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility. 48. PLT081 (Refer to figure 16.) What is the outlook for the southern half of Indiana after 0700Z? A) Scattered clouds at 3,000 feet AGL. B) Scattered clouds at 10,000 feet. C) VFR. 49. PLT514 To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a flight information region, the pilot should refer to A) Aviation Area Forecasts. B) Weather Depiction Charts. C) Satellite Maps. 50. PLT081 (Refer to figure 16.) The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the twenty-fifth at A) 0800Z. B) 1400Z. C) 1945Z. 51. PLT076 (Refer to figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet? A) 230° true at 56 knots. B) 230° true at 39 knots. C) 230° magnetic at 56 knots. 52. PLT081 (Refer to figure 16.) What sky condition and type obstructions to vision are forecast for upper Michigan in the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z? A) Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist. B) Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 nautical miles in mist. C) Ceiling becoming 100 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statue miles in mist. 53. PLT511 The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a A) frontolysis. B) frontogenesis. C) front. 54. PLT128 Why is frost considered hazardous to flight? A) Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby decreasing lift. B) Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness. C) Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability. 55. PLT003 (Refer to figure 35.) Determine the moment with the following data: WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 340 --- Fuel (std tanks) Capacity --- Oil, 8 qt --- --- A) 69.9 pound-inches. B) 74.9 pound-inches. C) 77.6 pound-inches. 56. PLT092 (Refer to figure 35.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category. WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 380 --- Fuel, 48 gal 288 --- Oil, 8 qt --- --- A) 78.2, normal category. B) 79.2, normal category. C) 80.4, utility category. 57. PLT021 (Refer to figures 33 and 34.) What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff? A) Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits. B) Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is unaffected. C) Weight is reduced to 2,680 pounds and the CG moves forward. 58. PLT021 (Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Which action can adjust the airplanes weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff? Front seat occupants 425 lb Rear seat occupants 300 lb Fuel, main tanks 44 gal A) Drain 12 gallons of fuel. B) Drain 9 gallons of fuel. C) Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks. 59. PLT021 (Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Upon landing, the front passenger (180 pounds) departs the airplane. A rear passenger (204 pounds) moves to the front passenger position. What effect does this have on the CG if the airplane weighed 2,690 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,260 just prior to the passenger transfer? A) The CG moves forward approximately 3 inches. B) The weight changes, but the CG is not affected. C) The CG moves forward approximately 0.1 inch. 60. PLT021 (Refer to figures 33 and 34.) With the airplane loaded as follows, what action can be taken to balance the airplane? Front seat occupants 411 lb Rear seat occupants 100 lb Main wing tanks 44 gal A) Fill the auxiliary wing tanks. B) Add a 100-pound weight to the baggage compartment. C) Transfer 10 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.
Posted on: Thu, 28 Nov 2013 03:06:29 +0000