De-bunking De-bunking Ray Hagins There will be no rapture and Jesus is not coming back. youtube/watch?v=Q5_P2F2o01c Since it takes him over 11 minutes of propaganda to get to his point I HAVE TO start where he actually begins his message which is part 2. At 0:6 of this video Hagins says Yehshua is the Hebrew version of the Greek word Jesus.. Apparently Hagins doesnt know some basic linguistic history! The proper name Jesus /ˈdʒiːzəs/ used in the English language originates from the Latin form of the Greek name Ἰησοῦς (Iēsous), a rendition of the Hebrew Yeshua (ישוע), also having the variants Joshua or Jeshua. Yeshua isnt the Hebrew version of the Greek word Jesus. THE WORD JESUS IS A LATIN VERSION OF THE GREEK WORD Iesous! Also did Hagins forget that as an afro-asiatic language, the Hebrew language would have naturally been older than the TYPE of Greek that the New Testament was written in? The earliest examples of written Hebrew date from the 10th century BCE Most ancient Hebrew biblical inscription deciphered. Physorg. Retrieved 2013-04-25. Whereas Ancient Greek is the form of Greek used during the periods of time spanning c. the 9th – 6th century BC (known as Archaic), c. the 5th – 4th century BC (Classical), and c. the 3rd century BC – 6th century AD (Hellenistic) in ancient Greece and the ancient world DOESNT Hagins KNOW THAT THE WORD JESUS WAS WRITTEN in Hellenistic GREEK and that the Hebrew language that the Old Testament, that the word YESHUA comes from, was in existence 700 YEARS BEFORE THIS BRANCH OF THE GREEK LANGUAGE WAS CREATED? He also applies the same ignorance surrounding the word Messiah. Apparently Hagins is also ignorant of the fact the Yeshua (ישוע, with vowel pointing יֵשׁוּעַ – yēšūă‘ in Hebrew) was a common alternative form of the name יְהוֹשֻׁעַ (Yehoshuah – Joshua) in later books of the Hebrew Bible and among Jews of the Second Temple period. SO ITS A LIE TO SAY THAT ITS A GREEK WORD!!! THEN AT Hagins tells his routine LIE about there not being a Letter J before the 16th century! Either this man is the biggest liar in the world or his is completely ignorant about the Egyptian language. THE LETTER J WASNT EVEN AROUND BEFORE THE BIBLE WAS PUT TOGETHER IN THE 1600S. AGAIN THEY FAIL TO LOOK IN THEIR OWN PROVERBIAL BACK-YARD FOR EVIDENCE OF THE LETTERS EXISTANCE THOUSAND OF YEARS BEFORE CHRIST. THE EGYPTIAN HIEROGLYPHICS EVEN SAY THEYRE WRONG! THE LETTER J WAS IN EXISTANCE OVER 1,500 YRS BEFORE THE BIRTH OF CHRIST. NOT OT MENTION THAT THE J SOUND HAS ALWAYS BEEN IN EXISTANCE IN THE LETTERS I AND Y, HENCE THIS IS WHY WE HAVE PEOPLE WHO LIVED BEFORE CHRIST WHO HAD A J SOUND IN THEIR NAME, SUCH AS JULIUS CEASER. THATS JUST PLAIN INTELLECTUAL DISHONESTY. It has been alleged by some that the letter J did not exist before the 16th century and this means the sound of the letter did not exist either. This is false. It is not true. To claim the sound of the letter J did not exist until the alphabet letter was created from the letter I is simply a lie. The sound now attributed to the letter J was one of three sounds that the letter I could stand for. All that happened when the letter J was formed was to separate the sound from the letter I and give it, its own alphabet character. Thus, in many words or names where the letter I had the J sound, the new letter stood in the place where the letter I once stood. There was no evil in this and no plot by Gutenburg or anyone else to profane the alphabet, words, or names as they are now spelled using the new letter J. It is scholarly falsehood for anyone to say the sound associated with the letter J did not exist until the letter was created from the letter I. The sound of the letter J was always resident in the letter I, thus those skilled in lingusitics and alphabet letters would know why the letter J was invented from the letter I and not some other letter. If anyone claims the sound of the letter J did not exist prior to the creation of the alphabet character, they are wrong. Look at this picture of the Egyptian language 2,000BC and you will see the sound of the letter J existed: It is a falsehood for anyone to claim the letter J and its sound did not exist until the 16th century. Many of our letter sounds come down to us from the Egyptian and Phoenician languages. These are the two root sources of ancient Paleo Hebrew, Greek, and other languages. The letter I in all cases represented the sound of the following letters I as in Israel; Y as in Yisrael; J as in Jezreel. It is to be noted that when the letter I was followed by a consonant it had the I sound as in Israel. And when the letter I was followed by a vowel it had the J sound. The Y sound atributed to the letter can only be sounded when it also is followed by a vowel. It may be a matter of choice to say Is-rael or Yis-rael. But to claim there was no sound of the letter J associated with this ancient letter is false. Here is a copy of the Phoenician Alphabet that shows the J sound included in the letter I. You will see also the Y sound. It is important to know which sound the letter I has in order to pronounce a word or name correctly. Since there is no one living who knows exactly how a word or name was pronounced, it is a fruitless argument to claim the letter J sounds like a Y or that the letter I sounds like ee as it is made in the Greek. There may be hundreds of years of incorrectly pronouncing a letter form, word, or name, as is done with the Spanish for Jesus, where it is pronounced Hey-sous. This is incorrect and no matter how hard a person tries, the letter I in Paleo-Hebrew, Latin, or Greek cannot come out with the H sound. There is a polution of the sound in this one case. Under what conditions did the letter I take on the Hey sound? It is incorrect then to say the name Jesus, spelled with the letter J is false. To claim this is false because the letter I should have the Y sound frustrates matters just as bad as the claim against the letter J. Because there is no letter Y in the Paleo-Hebrew nor a letter for W. The sound of Y is confessed to be included in the letter I and the letter W must be confessed was originally a Vaw. How then can those who attack the name of Jesus then present to us the names Yahweh and Yahshua when both of these guess names contain letters and letter sounds not found according to their rule in the Paleo-Hebrew alphabet? I,J Around 1700 B.C. this letter was used to represent y semi- consonant. After 900 B.C. the Greeks borrowed the sign from Phoenician and removed its bars, changed its name to Iota and made the sign stand for the vowel I. ANYONE WHO TRIES TO SUGGEST THAT THERE WAS NO LETTER J IS IGNORANT OF THE SCIENCE OF LINGIUSTICS,ESPECIALLY EGYPTIAN LINGUISTICS AND IS PARTICIPATING IN AN INTELLECTUALLY DISHONEST DISCUSSION. 2.bp.blogspot//2C-l7r_veZQ/s320/untitled.bmp At ANOTHER POINT of this video Ray Hagins There will be no rapture and Jesus is not coming back. part 3. Hagins says to ask Christians three questions 1. if it was possible that Christ expected his kingdom to come within his generation?? 2. Is it possible that Jesus thought that the end of the world was imminent Is it possible that what Christians teach has yet to come, has already happened?? Hagins tries to USE Luke 21: 31 and 32 to support his position that Christ believed and taught that his kingdom would come within his generation. Unfortunately what he does it EXACTLY what so many of these lying Passas do which is to TAKE SOMETHING OUT OF ITS CONTEXT and TWIST it to make it fit the lie you want to teach. Hagins is teaching that the word nigh which is of course an ENGLISH word and may have been used because it was the only word that they had which would even loosely fit for the Greek one and not that it means what HE THINK IT DOES. Any freshman high school student would know that in order to properly understand what anyone has written, you have to read everything thats being said!! APPARENTLY HAGINS hasnt read the entire chapter of this book. So Ill provide a link to the entire Chapter of Luke 21 so that you can read ALL OF THESE WORDS IN THEIR PROPER CONTEXT to see if Hagins is correct about what hes saying. At 0:40 of this video Hagins says that nigh means now! THATS A LIE! THE GREEK WORD FOR NIGH WAS eggus: near (in place or time) biblehub/greek/1451.htm Original Word: ἐγγύς Part of Speech: Adverb Transliteration: eggus Phonetic Spelling: (eng-goos) Short Definition: near Definition: near.Luke 21:30 Adv GRK: ὅτι ἤδη ἐγγὺς τὸ θέρος NAS: that summer is now near. KJV: is now nigh at hand. INT: that already near the summer genevabible.net/bible/luk/21 THERE IS NO KNOWN DEFINITION OR APPLICATION OF THIS WORD IN THE HEBREW LANGUAGE THAT MEANT NOW! At 2:09 of his video There will be no rapture and Jesus is not coming back. part 3 Hagins again makes a BASIC MISTAKE IN READING TRANSLATED AND TRANSLITERATED ancient text. He believes that THE PARTICULAR version of the bible that hes reading from gives the correct translation of the Greek word it was originally written in! HIS version of the bible uses the word generation where it says in Luke 21:31 where it says Verily I say unto you, This GENERATION shall not pass, till all these things be done: This is highly deceptive which is evidenced from Hagins NOT ATTEMPTING TO PROVIDE you with evidence of THE GREEK WORD THAT THIS WAS originally WRITTEN IN. SO LETS SEE WHY? What Hagins wants to keep the people from knowing is that the original word in the Greek language for generation is Strongs Concordance is GENEA. Its where we get our word Genealogy from!! The word that is used in Luke 21:31 in the Greek language is genea : IT MEANS race, family, generation AS YOU CAN PLAINLY SEE, THE WORD generation is actually the LAST definition that could possibly have been used for this word in the context that it was used in!! Original Word: γενεά, ᾶς, ἡ Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine Transliteration: genea Phonetic Spelling: (ghen-eh-ah) Short Definition: a generation Definition: a generation; if repeated twice or with another time word, practically indicates infinity of time. NAS Exhaustive Concordance Word Origin from ginomai Definition: race, family, generation Luke 21:32 N-NFS GRK: παρέλθῃ ἡ γενεὰ αὕτη ἕως NAS: to you, this generation will not pass away KJV: This generation shall not INT: will have passed away the generation this until I dont know how much this guy is selling these DVDs for but if its more than a dime, its a rip-off! The scholarship he represents is so poor that he should give everybody a refund. This is just ridiculous!! biblehub/greek/1074.htm At 7:40-53 of his video There will be no rapture and Jesus is not coming back. part 3. Hagins says that Christ was talking to his disciples because he used the word YOU. Yet again Hagins demonstrates his complete ignorance of the ORIGINAL GREEK WORD that the text was written in. IF he had, then it most certainly would have been as easy for him to find as it was for me! The WORD FOR YOU THAT IS BEING USED HERE IS εσείς eseís means you in Greek. In Modern Greek, εσείς (eseís, second person plural) with second person plural verb conjugation is used as the formal counterpart of εσύ (esý, second person singular) when talking to strangers and elders, although in everyday life it is common to speak to strangers of your age or younger using the singular pronoun. In addition, the informal second person singular is used even with older people you are acquainted with, depending on the level of mutual familiarity. Pronoun εσείς • (eseís) (strong personal pronoun) 1.you (2nd person plural, nominative) Usage notes This is the formal 2nd person pronoun, used to strangers and those to whom it is thought that deference or respect is due. The singular informal form εσύ is used with children, friends and relatives. THEREFORE IF IT IS A second person plural FORM OF THE WORD you WHICH IS USED when talking to strangers. THEN HAGINS IS LYING WHEN HE SAYS THAT THIS word for you MEANT HE WAS TALKING SPECIFICALLY TO THE DISCIPLES. IT MEANS THE COMPLETE OPPOSITE!! Its a Greek word for you thats used to talk to strangers! WHAT PART OF the fact that this word was used TALK TO STRANGERS COULD HAVE POSSIBLY BEEN OVERLOOKED, if Hagins had actually studied this material??? THE MAN IS EITHER INCOMPETENT OR HES LYING!! Take your pick! Either way this video should be a reminder to everyone not to put too much faith in them videos as with this one, they are most likely wrong concerning most of what they say. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%CE%B5%CF%83%CE%B5%CE%AF%CF%82 At 10:00 OF Hagins VIDEO THERE WILL BE NO RAPTURE... HE again demonstrates his COMPLETE and total ignorance concerning what hes reading when he repeats the words of Matthew 24:1-5 And Jesus went out, and departed from the temple: and his disciples came to him for to shew him the buildings of the temple. And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down....the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world? where Christ says And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you. 6 For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many., AS IF THIS WAS SOMETHING THAT CHRIST WAS TELLING HIS DISCIPLES THAT THEY SHOULD TAKE HEED ABOUT. DOES HAGINS REALLY EXPECT ANY ONE TO BELIEVE THAT IF SOME ONE CAME TO THESE MEN AND TOLD THEM THAT THEY WERE CHRIST THAT they would be deceived AND NOT KNOW THAT IT WASNT HIM after spending 3yrs of their lives with him on a daily basis???? EVEN MORE IMPORTANTLY HAGINS DOES NOT SEEM TO KNOW WHAT THE ORIGINAL GREEK WORD WAS THAT WAS USED IN THIS PASSAGE!! He goes on to say that what Christ really meant was that many should come in the name of Jesus trying to deceive people into thinking that Jesus was Christ!! NOW HERES WHERE THE DEPARTURE FROM REALITY IS SO GREAT, that there can be no other explanation for him saying that other than HES intentionally LYING! HE DOESNT TELL YOU WHAT THE ORIGINAL GREEK WORD FOR I IS! Instead he deceives the viewer by saying that this would mean that some one was referring to Jesus and not their self! If some one was going to say that he, Jesus, was the Christ then they would have use the Greek word for HE in this passage. So it would read For many shall come in my name, saying, HE was the Christ.. However, the word used here is not he but I! THE WORD FOR I IN THE GREEK LANGUAGE IS EGO, The NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon Strongs Number: 1473 Original Word Word Origin ego a primary pronoun of the first person I (only expressed when emphatic) SIMPLY PUT, ANYONE USING THE WORD EGO COULD ONLY HAVE BEEN EFERRING TO HIMSELF!!! Transliterated Word TDNT Entry Ego 2:343,196 Phonetic Spelling Parts of Speech eg-o Definition-I, me, my NAS Word Usage - Total: 40 have 2, mine 10, mine* 1, myself 11, number 1, ours 8, ourselves 4, part 2, say 1 NOWHERE IS THIS WORD TRANSLATED AS HE! This passage is most definitely talking about other people who would come along and say that they were Christ!!! YET, ANOTHER FAMOUS HAGIN LIE!!! biblestudytools/lexicons/greek/nas/ego.html
Posted on: Wed, 12 Mar 2014 15:11:33 +0000
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